[B-Greek] Focus on the Greek, please: Acts 11.20

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Wed Dec 27 14:35:19 EST 2006


Could we please keep discussion here focused upon the Greek text and steer 
clear of doctrinal interpretation and questions that don't bear directly on the
Greek text? PLEASE!

Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek Discussion List


 
On Wednesday, December 27, 2006, at 11:52AM, "Anthony Buzzard" <anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com> wrote:
>The "Jesus is Lord" slogan of early Christianity is based on the all 
>pervasive Ps. 110:1 which as Peter said in Acts 2:34-36 makes Jesus 
>Lord in the Messianic sense stipulated by that controlling verse from 
>the Psalms, which wins the prize for frequent citation of OT passages 
>in the New.
>The "my lord" of that Psalm gives us "our Lord Jesus,"  "our Lord 
>Jesus Messiah.
>  and maranatha, "our Lord come!"
>Whether we acknowledge him as Lord or "the Lord Jesus" the sense is 
>purely Messianic.
>
>
>Anthony Buzzard
>
>At 11:01 AM 12/27/2006, George F Somsel wrote:
>>The verb EUAGGELIZOMAI (or as it appears in the NT EUAGGELIZW) 
>>appears in the LXX and in secular Greek literature as well so I 
>>would not insist that someone translate it as "preach the 
>>gospel."  It was simply the bearing of good news ( e.g., "The Colts 
>>won the Superbowl!").  The structure you question would be a sort of 
>>double accusative.  We do see such in Paul.  In Rom 10.9 he has
>>
>>hOTI EAN hOMOLOGHSHiS EN TWi STOMATI SOU KURION IHSOUN KAI 
>>PISTEUSHiS EN THi KARDIAi SOU hOTI QEOS AUTON HGEIREN EK NEKRWN, SWQHSHi
>>
>>Of course, I'm sure you never read or heard that verse.  :-)
>>
>>This could be translated "if you confess orally that Jesus is Lord" 
>>or "if you confess the Lord Jesus" with preference usually being 
>>given to the first.  The reason for this is most likely the fact 
>>that Caesar was proclaimed as lord so this functioned as a 
>>counter-claim.  I wouldn't therefore say that "Jesus as Lord" should 
>>be considered wrong, but the question is whether this is for the 
>>purpose of countering any imperial claim.  Probably it is not so 
>>"the Lord Jesus" would most likely be preferable.  BTW:  "Jesus AS 
>>Lord" is most likely simply a development of "Jesus IS Lord" with 
>>the copula being supplied.
>>
>>george
>>gfsomsel
>>_________
>>
>>
>>
>>----- Original Message ----
>>From: Luke Hartman <lists at mrturtle.com>
>>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>>Sent: Wednesday, December 27, 2006 10:30:58 AM
>>Subject: [B-Greek] Acts 20:11 - Jesus as Lord?
>>
>>
>>I was reading "Between Jesus and Paul" by Martin Hengel, and he
>>translated the end of the verse (or at least the one translating his
>>work into English) 'also spoke to the Greeks and proclaimed Jesus as
>>Kyrios'
>>
>>HSAN DE TINES EX AUTWN ANDRES KUPRIOI KAI KURHNAIOI hOITINES ELQONTES
>>EIS ANTIOCEIAN ELALOUN KAI PROS TOUS hELLHNISTAS EUAGGELIZOMENOI TON
>>KURION IHSOUN
>>
>>The English version I checked (and my limited Greek knowledge) would
>>translate "Preaching/proclaiming/'goodnewsing' the Lord Jesus." Is
>>there any justification for Hengel's translation or does it really
>>make a difference?
>>
>>Thanks,
>>
>>luke hartman
>>midwest city, ok
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>
>Anthony Buzzard
>www.restorationfellowship.org 
>
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