[B-Greek] ouranw/ouranois

pporta at oham.net pporta at oham.net
Wed Dec 27 07:20:17 EST 2006


I do not know whether my question matches the purposes and/or limits of this 
B-greek list.
But supposing 'yes', I'm asking:

In the "our father" (Mt 6:9-10 and subsq.)  --------- can we guess any 
reason for the plural "en tois ouranois" in verse 9 vs the singular "en 
ouranw" in verse 10?

Or it is something rather quite irrelevant so that it could have been just 
the inverse: "en ouranw" in verse 9 and "en (tois) ouranois" in verse 10? Or 
it could have been even the same in both verses: "en ouranw" in verse 9 and 
"en ouranw" in verse 10 or "en (tois) ouranois" in verse 9 and "en (tois) 
ouranois" in verse 10?
I mean: can we think of some, so to say, theological intention or background 
by this difference of use of two forms  --singular/plural--  for the same 
thing in this passage of "Our father"?

Pere Porta 




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