[B-Greek] ouranw/ouranois
pporta at oham.net
pporta at oham.net
Wed Dec 27 07:20:17 EST 2006
I do not know whether my question matches the purposes and/or limits of this
B-greek list.
But supposing 'yes', I'm asking:
In the "our father" (Mt 6:9-10 and subsq.) --------- can we guess any
reason for the plural "en tois ouranois" in verse 9 vs the singular "en
ouranw" in verse 10?
Or it is something rather quite irrelevant so that it could have been just
the inverse: "en ouranw" in verse 9 and "en (tois) ouranois" in verse 10? Or
it could have been even the same in both verses: "en ouranw" in verse 9 and
"en ouranw" in verse 10 or "en (tois) ouranois" in verse 9 and "en (tois)
ouranois" in verse 10?
I mean: can we think of some, so to say, theological intention or background
by this difference of use of two forms --singular/plural-- for the same
thing in this passage of "Our father"?
Pere Porta
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