[B-Greek] ouranw/ouranois
Albert Pietersma
albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Wed Dec 27 14:55:20 EST 2006
A recent article: Jonathan T. Pennington: "Heaven" and "Heavens" in the
LXX: Exploring the Relationship Between SHAMAYIM and OURANOS, Bulletin
of the International Organ. for Septuagint and Cognate Studies 36
(2003) 39-59.
Al
On Dec 27, 2006, at 2:47 PM, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>
> On Wednesday, December 27, 2006, at 02:39PM, <pporta at oham.net> wrote:
>> I do not know whether my question matches the purposes and/or limits
>> of this
>> B-greek list.
>> But supposing 'yes', I'm asking:
>>
>> In the "our father" (Mt 6:9-10 and subsq.) --------- can we guess any
>> reason for the plural "EN TOIS OURANOIS" in verse 9 vs the singular
>> "EN
>> OURANWi" in verse 10?
>>
>> Or it is something rather quite irrelevant so that it could have been
>> just
>> the inverse: "en ouranw" in verse 9 and "en (tois) ouranois" in verse
>> 10? Or
>> it could have been even the same in both verses: "en ouranw" in verse
>> 9 and
>> "en ouranw" in verse 10 or "en (tois) ouranois" in verse 9 and "en
>> (tois)
>> ouranois" in verse 10?
>> I mean: can we think of some, so to say, theological intention or
>> background
>> by this difference of use of two forms --singular/plural-- for the
>> same
>> thing in this passage of "Our father"?
>
> The plural is actually more common in Matthew; I think the usual
> explanation
> is that it represents the Hebrew form, which is plural (dual?) form
> ha-shamayyim.
>
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)
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>
—
Albert Pietersma
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Weston ON Canada M9N 2B8
Email: albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Homepage: http://www.chass.utoronto.ca/~pietersm
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