[B-Greek] noun-pronoun agreement John 16:13
Stephen C. Carlson
scarlson at mindspring.com
Tue Feb 14 09:59:18 EST 2006
At 07:53 AM 2/14/2006 -0700, Pastor Shawn Ragan wrote:
>hOTAN DE ELQH EKEINOS, TO PNEUMA THS ALHQEIAS...
>
>TO PNEUMA is neuter and EKEINOS is masculine...right?
>
>I always understood that your noun and pronoun had to agree (case, number, gender), but if EKEINOS is for PNEUMA then they would not seem to match. I was curious about this.
>
>I am not interested in the theological aspect of it, necessarily. I am wanting to understand the Greek aspect of it. Is there an exception that makes the rule or am I missing something simple? Any help would be appreciated.
I think that the following TO PNEUMA THS ALHQEIAS is *not*
the antecedent of EKEINOS but in apposition to it. Rather,
I think EKEINOS refers back to the masculine hO PARAKLHTOS
in John 16:7 (also EKEINOS in v. 8), which would account
for the noun-pronoun agreement we see in the text.
Stephen Carlson
--
Stephen C. Carlson mailto:scarlson at mindspring.com
Weblog: http://www.hypotyposeis.org/weblog/
Author of: The Gospel Hoax, http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/1932792481
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