[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?

Mondo Pascal mondofive at hotmail.com
Thu Feb 23 11:52:00 EST 2006


Gene,

Is it an accurate translation of Greek?  Yes.  It is common to translate 
predicate nominatives as at John 1:1 indefinitely (c.f. Acts 28:4).

The debate is not so much a matter of whether or not the text can be 
translated indefinitely, but if such a rendering 1) fits John's theology 
(which is not a topic for this forum)  and 2) fits the context of the 
passage (which, not being a matter of strict grammar, is also not a topic 
for this forum).

So, again, to answer your question: "Is it an accurate translation of the 
Greek?"  Yes it is.  Much beyond that is better suited for a private email.

Mondo Pascal


>From: Gene Gardner <g_gardner1234 at yahoo.com>
>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: [B-Greek] NWT:  Is it  an accurate translation of the Greek?
>Date: Wed, 22 Feb 2006 18:07:36 -0800 (PST)
>
>In The New World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows:
>
>
>   Joh 1:1  In  [the]  beginning the Word was,  and the Word was with God,  
>and the Word was a god.
>
>   The reason for the rendering of “a god” is explained
>   in part by the following:
>
>
>   The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of 
>the·os´ (God) but not before the second.
>
>   I would like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of 
>this rendering.
>
>   Thanks
>
>   Gene Gardner
>
>
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