[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
Mondo Pascal
mondofive at hotmail.com
Thu Feb 23 11:52:00 EST 2006
Gene,
Is it an accurate translation of Greek? Yes. It is common to translate
predicate nominatives as at John 1:1 indefinitely (c.f. Acts 28:4).
The debate is not so much a matter of whether or not the text can be
translated indefinitely, but if such a rendering 1) fits John's theology
(which is not a topic for this forum) and 2) fits the context of the
passage (which, not being a matter of strict grammar, is also not a topic
for this forum).
So, again, to answer your question: "Is it an accurate translation of the
Greek?" Yes it is. Much beyond that is better suited for a private email.
Mondo Pascal
>From: Gene Gardner <g_gardner1234 at yahoo.com>
>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: [B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
>Date: Wed, 22 Feb 2006 18:07:36 -0800 (PST)
>
>In The New World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows:
>
>
> Joh 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God,
>and the Word was a god.
>
> The reason for the rendering of a god is explained
> in part by the following:
>
>
> The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of
>the·os´ (God) but not before the second.
>
> I would like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of
>this rendering.
>
> Thanks
>
> Gene Gardner
>
>
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