[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?

Awohili at aol.com Awohili at aol.com
Thu Feb 23 14:42:32 EST 2006


 
In my prior post, the program did not adequately indicate the end of  Barry's 
words and the beginning of mine.
 
Barry's post (as snipped) stopped with:  "Dr. Layton says it  is up to the 
reader  to  decide, but is there any indication in the  immediate context to  
help us?"

 
My thoughts began with:   "True, the Coptic translator(s) "could have 
understood" a qualitative  sense  at John 1:1, but that cannot be said definitely on 
the basis of  the  grammar." 
 
Also, my last sentence should have  read:  "So, the difference in translation 
does not appear 
to be  one of  grammar and syntax."
 
I apologize for any lack of  clarity. 
 
Best regards,
 
Solomon Landers







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