[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
Awohili at aol.com
Awohili at aol.com
Thu Feb 23 14:42:32 EST 2006
In my prior post, the program did not adequately indicate the end of Barry's
words and the beginning of mine.
Barry's post (as snipped) stopped with: "Dr. Layton says it is up to the
reader to decide, but is there any indication in the immediate context to
help us?"
My thoughts began with: "True, the Coptic translator(s) "could have
understood" a qualitative sense at John 1:1, but that cannot be said definitely on
the basis of the grammar."
Also, my last sentence should have read: "So, the difference in translation
does not appear
to be one of grammar and syntax."
I apologize for any lack of clarity.
Best regards,
Solomon Landers
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