[B-Greek] Periphrastic construction in Jn 3:28
Robb Wallace
robbw at calvary-tricities.org
Fri Feb 24 12:35:57 EST 2006
Greetings,
How would you translate the periphrastic construction in Jn 3:28
(apestalmenos eimi)? My understanding of periphrastics is that the purpose
is to emphasize the aspect of the participle (i.e. I have been and continue
to be sent). Is that correct and if so what would be the added emphasis in
meaning for John to use a periphrastic construction instead of a simple 1st
person perfect indicative in verse 28?
Thanks,
Robb Wallace
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