[B-Greek] Acts 1:16
Richard Lindeman
oblchurch at msn.com
Mon Feb 27 11:21:29 EST 2006
Dr. Conrad:
Thanks... this is exactly the kind of information I was looking for. In my
readings of NT Greek I was aware of the occassional funtion of the definite
article as a pronoun. That is what I was was wrestling with in Acts 1:16.
In the flow of this particular verse it just seemed a shorter trip for me to
imagine the TOU funtioning as a pronoun than to do the mental gymnastics
involved in reading it as an articular participle. But this may simply be my
western mindset playing tricks on me.
Rich Lindeman
----- Original Message -----
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
To: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
Sent: Monday, February 27, 2006 2:35 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16
> It can be a pronoun (originally was a pronoun, of course, a very weak
> "he/she/it") and still in Koine preserves that in such expressions where
> it functions as subject of a finite verb: hO D' EFH ... "but he said
> ..." -- particularly when there's a MEN or DE following the
> article/pronoun.
>
> On Feb 26, 2006, at 11:25 PM, Richard Lindeman wrote:
>
>> Right... genitive of an articular participle does make sense to me and I
>> saw
>> that from the start. I also clearly understood that an articular
>> participle
>> could either be translated as a relative clause or not.
>>
>> But for some reason I was thinking that the definite article in Greek at
>> times actually varies in form and function... not just as an adaptation
>> to
>> the English language, but rather as something inherent to the Greek
>> language
>> itself. (i.e. form = definite article, but function = pronoun)
>>
>> Rich Lindeman
>>
>>
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