[B-Greek] Acts 1:16

Richard Lindeman oblchurch at msn.com
Mon Feb 27 11:21:29 EST 2006


Dr. Conrad:

Thanks... this is exactly the kind of information I was looking for.  In my 
readings of NT Greek I was aware of the occassional funtion of the definite 
article as a pronoun. That is what I was was wrestling with in Acts 1:16. 
In the flow of this particular verse it just seemed a shorter trip for me to 
imagine the TOU funtioning as a pronoun than to do the mental gymnastics 
involved in reading it as an articular participle. But this may simply be my 
western mindset playing tricks on me.

Rich Lindeman


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
To: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
Sent: Monday, February 27, 2006 2:35 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16


> It can be a pronoun (originally was a pronoun, of course, a very weak 
> "he/she/it") and still in Koine preserves that in such expressions  where 
> it functions as subject of a finite verb: hO D' EFH ... "but he  said 
> ..." -- particularly when there's a MEN or DE following the 
> article/pronoun.
>
> On Feb 26, 2006, at 11:25 PM, Richard Lindeman wrote:
>
>> Right... genitive of an articular participle does make sense to me  and I 
>> saw
>> that from the start. I also clearly understood that an articular 
>> participle
>> could either be translated as a relative clause or not.
>>
>> But for some reason I was thinking that the definite article in  Greek at
>> times actually varies in form and function... not just as an  adaptation 
>> to
>> the English language, but rather as something inherent to the Greek 
>> language
>> itself. (i.e. form = definite article, but function = pronoun)
>>
>> Rich Lindeman
>>
>>




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