[B-Greek] The Definite Article in Romans 9:5
Harold Holmyard
hholmyard at ont.com
Tue Feb 28 18:15:23 EST 2006
Dear Terry,
>Greetings,
>The general questioning in regards to Romans 9:5 regards the Deity of Christ but there is almost no discussion on the use of the definite article TO. Many commentators (Schreiner, Piper, Dunn, Cranfield, etc.) quote Blass & DeBrunner's teaching that this article "strongly emphasizes limitation", and feel that is sufficient and move on.
>Is that all there is to say about the use of this definite article? B&D claim "this usage is not frequent" so why hasn't more been said about it? Are B&D right in their conclusion? How do they know? Why a singular accusative neuter? Does the neuter imply "the thing"? I'm not able to find other exact examples in the GNT nor is there discussion in the grammars like Wallace, D&M, or Summers.
>Any help understanding this usage of the definite article would be appreciated.
>
HH: BAGD, in the treatment of the definite article (hO) lists the
expression in Rom 9:5 under II, 6: "with an adverb or adverbial
expression." See a similar phrase in 1 Cor 13:10: TO EK MEROUS. The idea
in Rom 9:5 seems to be, as the translations have it, "with respect to
the flesh." Insofar as his flesh was concerned, the Messiah was
descended from the fathers. This is an interesting assertion, since it
easily implies that with respect to some other part (His spirit), the
Messiah was not descended from the fathers. Such an inference comports
well with the interpretation of the verse as asserting the deity of the
Messiah.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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