[B-Greek] Mark 1:5: Semitic influence?
Daveat168 at aol.com
Daveat168 at aol.com
Thu Jan 5 14:55:56 EST 2006
Dear Friend,
I notice here that you have seen in Koine Greek, something which I have also found in Late Classiccal Latin.
In English, and so we, with great hubris assume, in all other languages, the correct form is:
'John and Julia are here'
whereas in Latin one could write, and will commonly find the form:
'John and Julia is here'
That is because 'et' can be read as both 'and' and 'also', so though corectly:
'Iohanus et Iulia adest'
should be read:
John is here, also Juia (is here).
I have found other gramatical peculiarities in Koine reflected in Latin, and I am inclined to consider whether Koine is a pidjin language imposed by the Roman occupation, using Greek vocabulary, and Latin grammar, or simplified Latin grammar.
One of the other similarities is the propensity to introduce indirect speech, using a word normally translated in both Latin, and Koine as 'that', then giving the speech in verbatim format. In Koine, and also Latin, it is common, though I believe, mistaken, to ignore the introductory word, and translate as direct speech.
--
Best regards,
Dave Smith.
(B.A.2,1, Science & Technology, Open Univerity.)
168 Bristol Road,
Frampton Cotterell,
Bristol, BS36 2AX,
U.K.
eMail <DaveAt168 at aol.com>
WWW: <http://www.sangallen56.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk>
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