[B-Greek] a question about Tertullian translation
Octavio Rodriguez
octaviors at gmail.com
Wed Jan 11 06:32:14 EST 2006
Dear Sir :
Perhaps this question is without the greek, but i need help about the
Greek to latin .
My question is only about in what sense Tertullian translated Phil 2:6.
He did it like this :
* qui in effigie dei constitutus non rapinam existimavit pariari deo* (On
the Resurrection of the Flesh)
Greek : hOS EN MORFH QEOU hUPARXWN OUX hARPAGMON hHGHSATO TO EINAI ISA QEW
It is clear that Tertullian considered hARPAGMON in active sense, the
same as robbery. However,I don´t know if Tertullian is saying : "thought it
not robbery to be equal with God" or "gave no consideration to a seizure,
that he should be equal to God" .
Best Regards
Octavio Rodriguez
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