[B-Greek] GEGONEN and the imperfect HN

RRedden604 at aol.com RRedden604 at aol.com
Thu Jan 12 03:37:27 EST 2006


Couldn't the fact that in every other case where John uses GEGONEN (in his  
Gospel), it ends a clause (1:15, 20; 12:30; 14:22) suggest a stylistic  
propensity?  This also seems to support the view that the punctuation with  the stop 
follows GEGONEN, especially in light of Metzger's insightful  observation that 
John had a "fondness for beginning a sentence or clause with EN  and a 
demonstrative pronoun (cf. 13.35; 15.8; 16.26; 1 Jn 2.3, 5, 5; 3.10, 16,  19, 24; 
4,2, etc.)" (196).
 
Certainly, the number of examples I've cited are too few to build a strong  
case for the punctuation, but can anyone offer a better explanation?
 
Rob Redden
 
Visiting Faculty, Bible Department,  
Bear Valley Bible Institute of Denver extension

Kramatorsk Economic and Cultural Institute,
Kramatorsk, Ukraine 
 



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