[B-Greek] Ps. 82 LXX
Harold Holmyard
hholmyard at ont.com
Sat Jan 21 15:39:48 EST 2006
Dear Michel:
>Can anyone explain to me why the LXX uses imperatives of the aorist and not of the present in Ps. 81:3-4 (English Bible: Ps. 82)?
>(krinate orphanon etc.)
>What should be the difference if the imperative of the present had been used?
>
>
Dan Wallace, in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (p. 485), writes:
The basic force of the imperative of command involves somewhat different
nuances with each tense. With the aorist, the force generally is to
command the action as a whole, without focusing on duration, repetition,
etc. In keeping with its aspectual force, the aorist puts forth a
summary command. With the present, the force generally is to command the
action as an ongoing process. This is in keeping with the present's
aspect, which portrays an internal perspective.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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