[B-Greek] Ps. 82 LXX

Albert Pietersma albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Sat Jan 21 17:00:49 EST 2006


Since the aorist is the UNmarked form (not the marked), one might 
better ask: Why shouldn't G have used the aorist imperative? And with 
that I'll leave further answering to Carl Conrad, since it concerns 
standard Greek usage.
Al

On Jan 21, 2006, at 2:48 PM, J.M. Pauw wrote:

> Can anyone explain to me why the LXX uses imperatives of the aorist 
> and not of the present in Ps. 81:3-4 (English Bible: Ps. 82)?
> (krinate orphanon etc.)
> What should be the difference if the imperative of the present had 
> been used?
>
> Michel Pauw
>
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—
Albert Pietersma
Professor of Septuagint and Hellenistic Greek
Near & Middle Eastern Civilizations
University of Toronto
Home: 21 Cross Street,
Weston ON Canada M9N 2B8
Email: albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
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