[B-Greek] Dative Absolute?

Richard Ghilardi qodeshlayhvh at juno.com
Sun Jan 22 20:20:27 EST 2006


Hello Folks,

I've already said my peace on this subject, which may be found in the
archives. I will only note that Perschbacher cites 3 additional texts
from the GNT for the dative absolute in his book, New Testament Greek
Syntax An Illustrated Manual:

Mt 9:27 -- KAI PARAGONTI EKEIQEN TWi IHSOU HKOLOUQHSAN AUTWi DUO TUFLOI

Acts 22:6 -- EGENETO DE MOI POREUOMENWi KAI EGGIZONTI THi DAMASKWi PERI
MESHMBRIAN EXAIFNHS EK TOU OURANOU PERIASTRAYAN FWS hIKANON PERI EME

Acts 22:17 -- EGENETO DE MOI hUPOSTREYANTI EIS IEROUSALHM KAI
PROSEUCOMENOU MOU EN TWi hIERWi GENESQAI ME EN EKSTASEI

Yours in His grace,

Richard Ghilardi - qodeshlayhvh at juno.com
New Haven, Connecticut USA

==================================================

On Sun, 22 Jan 2006 22:29:37 +0000 "Bert de Haan" <b_dehaan at sympatico.ca>
writes:
> Matthew 8:23:
> KAI EMBANTI AUTWi EIS TO PLOION HKOLOUQHSAN AUTWi hOI MAQHTAI 
> AUTOU.
> Wesley J. Perschbacher calls EMBANTI AUTWi a dative absolute.
> I can't find anything written about a dative absolute construction.
> If the participle and the pronoun had been in the genitive case the 
> sentence 
> would have made sense as well.
> Is the use and meaning of the dative and genitive absolute the 
> same?
> Bert de Haan.


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