[B-Greek] John 1:1c

Barry nebarry at verizon.net
Tue Jul 4 07:41:37 EDT 2006


> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]
> On Behalf Of Rolf Furuli
> Sent: Tuesday, July 04, 2006 6:15 AM
> To: B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] John 1:1c
> 
> Dear David,
> 
> I have read your posts for many years, and my impression is that you have
a
> very good grasp of the Greek language and Greek grammar. Moreover, you
also
> have the ability to ask fine and important questions. To your question
> regarding theology I will answer that John 1:1 is one of those places
where
> theology must play a role in the translation process, since the renderings
> "and the word was divine" and "and the word was a god" both are
> linguistically possible (But the rendering "and the Word was God" is
> linguistically impossible, but theologically possible.) 

Linguistically impossible?  My goodness, I think our theological
presuppositions are peeking through, well disguised with rhetoric, but
observable nonetheless.  Of course it's linguistically possible.  Do you
care to prove your claim using simply the categories of linguistics?

N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Adjunct Faculty & IT Support
The Center for Urban Theological Studies
http://www.cuts.edu
Classics Instructor, The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net

And my site:

http://mysite.verizon.net/nebarry






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