[B-Greek] Another example of a qualitative QEOS

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon Jul 10 10:27:58 EDT 2006


On Jul 10, 2006, at 9:54 AM, Michael Abernathy wrote:

> Barry wrote:
>>
>>> -----Original Message-----
>>> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
>>>
>> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]
>>
>>> On Behalf Of alethinon61 at milwpc.com
>>> Sent: Thursday, July 06, 2006 11:58 AM
>>> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>>> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Another example of a qualitative QEOS
>>>
>>
>>
>>
>>> I would say for the same reason we rearrange sentences in English
>>> from the active to the passive voice: To bring the predicate into
>>> focus giving it a desired and useful emphasis.  Wouldn't this fit
>>> with the context?  If words in English don't change their meaning
>>> when found in the passive vs. the active voice, then why would they
>>> change meaning in Greek when fronted for emphasis?  No one on this
>>> forum has addressed this yet.
>>>
>>
>> Sean, I just saw this reply while purging old email.  Two points:
>>
>> 1) The lack of the article in Greek does not in all contexts mean  
>> that the
>> word should be translated with the indefinite article in English.
>>
>> 2) Meaning is a tricky thing.  For example in Latin, you have the  
>> verb
>> *video*, which means "see."  In the passive, however, it is normally
>> translated "seem."  In Greek, you have such verbs as hISTHMI,  
>> which may be
>> glossed "cause to stand," but in the second aorist means "stand"  
>> in the
>> intransitive sense.  So in some languages, form changes actually  
>> do mean,
>> from the perspective translation into English, different meanings.
>>
>> N.E. Barry Hofstetter
>> Adjunct Faculty & IT Support
>> The Center for Urban Theological Studies
>> http://www.cuts.edu
>> Classics Instructor, The American Academy
>> http://www.theamericanacademy.net
>>
>>
> If anything, I think you understated yourself on point 1. I took a few
> moments yesterday and looked at the instances of the predicate
> nominative in John. It seems to me that when the predicate nominative
> precedes the verb that it is more common for it to remain definite  
> even
> though it lacks the definite article.

I think Barry's statement ("not in all contexts") was appropriately more
cautious. I have not made such a check of instances of the predicate
nominative in  John, but I'd be wary of employing such a generalization
as probative.  For instance Jn 3:5 ... TO GEGENNHMENON EK TOU
PNEUMATOS PNEUMA ESTIN. PNEUMA here certainly isn't
definite. Nor is it in Jn 4:24 PNEUMA hO QEOS where ESTIN is
clearly implicit following PNEUMA. Isn't the sense in these two:

'What derives from the Spirit is spirit (or 'a spirit')

and

"God is a spirit"?

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/





More information about the B-Greek mailing list