[B-Greek] Another example of a qualitative QEOS
alethinon61 at milwpc.com
alethinon61 at milwpc.com
Wed Jul 12 21:25:45 EDT 2006
>>> I would say for the same reason we rearrange sentences in English
>>> from the active to the passive voice: To bring the predicate into
>>> focus giving it a desired and useful emphasis. Wouldn't this fit
>>> with the context? If words in English don't change their meaning
>>> when found in the passive vs. the active voice, then why would
>they
>>> change meaning in Greek when fronted for emphasis? No one on this
>>> forum has addressed this yet.
>Sean, I just saw this reply while purging old email. Two points:
>1) The lack of the article in Greek does not in all contexts mean
>that the word should be translated with the indefinite article in
English.
>2) Meaning is a tricky thing. For example in Latin, you have the
verb >*video*, which means "see." In the passive, however, it is
normally >translated "seem." In Greek, you have such verbs as
hISTHMI, which may be >glossed "cause to stand," but in the second
aorist means "stand" in the >intransitive sense. So in some
languages, form changes actually do mean, >from the perspective
translation into English, different meanings.
Thank you for the belated response, Barry. I have a couple of
belated questions for you. First, as to #1, I agree that lack of the
article in Greek does not necessarily mean that a word should be
translated with the indefinite article in English. Did I say
something that suggested that I thought otherwise?
Second, as to #2, I'm not sure I understand what you mean by "form
changes". I am focusing on predicate nominatives, and I don't see
how their form changes as a result of their placement in relation to
the verb. I've never had anyone suggest that fronting involved a
form change. Can you elaborate?
Thanks
Sean Kasabuske
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