[B-Greek] Genitive in Romans 6:6c

Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Jul 14 14:04:27 EDT 2006


I.Larsen Wrote:

<quote>
I won't go beyond KATARGEW here, but you are correct in assuming that  
I consider your interpretation impossible on purely grammatical  
grounds. In looking at all occurrences of the verb (in the GNT), it  
seems clear that the verb is semantically divalent, i.e. it takes an  
agent and patient. A third valency can be added by the use of a  
prepositional phrase (but not simply by a genitive noun). Confer DIA  
in Rom 3:31, APO in Rom 7:2,6, Gal 5:4,  EN in 2 Cor 3:14. The dative  
in 2 Th 2:8 functions in the same way as a prepositional phrase with  
EN and indicates means. Of course, if the verb is passive as in Rom  
6:6 and many other places, the patient is expressed syntactically as  
subject and the agent unspecified.
<end quote>

Perhaps I misunderstand but this paragraph appears to contain a  
formal contradiction.

"A third valency can be added by the use of a prepositional phrase  
(but not simply by a genitive noun)."

"The dative in 2 Th 2:8 functions in the same way as a prepositional  
phrase with EN and indicates means."

2TH. 2:8 KAI TOTE APOKALUFQHSETAI hO ANOMOS, hON hO KURIOS [IHSOUS]  
ANELEI TWi PNEUMATI TOU STOMATOS AUTOU KAI KATARGHSEI THi EPIFANEIAi  
THS PAROUSIAS AUTOU,

If it is true that a case w/o a preposition cannot function  
adverbially this is the first time I have heard of it. Again, I may  
be missing your point entirely.


Elizabeth Kline







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