[B-Greek] Genitive in Romans 6:6c
Elizabeth Kline
kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Jul 14 14:04:27 EDT 2006
I.Larsen Wrote:
<quote>
I won't go beyond KATARGEW here, but you are correct in assuming that
I consider your interpretation impossible on purely grammatical
grounds. In looking at all occurrences of the verb (in the GNT), it
seems clear that the verb is semantically divalent, i.e. it takes an
agent and patient. A third valency can be added by the use of a
prepositional phrase (but not simply by a genitive noun). Confer DIA
in Rom 3:31, APO in Rom 7:2,6, Gal 5:4, EN in 2 Cor 3:14. The dative
in 2 Th 2:8 functions in the same way as a prepositional phrase with
EN and indicates means. Of course, if the verb is passive as in Rom
6:6 and many other places, the patient is expressed syntactically as
subject and the agent unspecified.
<end quote>
Perhaps I misunderstand but this paragraph appears to contain a
formal contradiction.
"A third valency can be added by the use of a prepositional phrase
(but not simply by a genitive noun)."
"The dative in 2 Th 2:8 functions in the same way as a prepositional
phrase with EN and indicates means."
2TH. 2:8 KAI TOTE APOKALUFQHSETAI hO ANOMOS, hON hO KURIOS [IHSOUS]
ANELEI TWi PNEUMATI TOU STOMATOS AUTOU KAI KATARGHSEI THi EPIFANEIAi
THS PAROUSIAS AUTOU,
If it is true that a case w/o a preposition cannot function
adverbially this is the first time I have heard of it. Again, I may
be missing your point entirely.
Elizabeth Kline
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list