[B-Greek] Two men in one bed?
Harold Holmyard
hholmyard at ont.com
Thu Jul 20 14:26:44 EDT 2006
Dear Fridolin,
>
>Luke 17:34 says that two men shall be in one “bed” (KLINE). Could “O”
>(masculine) also refer to a woman? Wouldn’t it be strange to have two men
>sleeping in one bed at the coming of Christ? Since the meals were taken at a
>“KLINE”, should this word not be translated as “couch” or a synonym, in
>order for people to understand the text properly? I used the word “divã” in
>my translation. Do you think I am on the right track?
>
>We always think the two were sleeping and not participating in a meal,
>because “KLINE” was translated as “bed”.
>
HH: I don't think the masculine definite article refers to a woman, and
I don't think a meal is being discussed. I heard a sermon concerning the
reality that even in the U.S. in past generations it was not uncommon
for brothers to share the same bed, and for similar situations to exist.
Look at this verse below, though perhaps there is more than one way to
read it:
Luke 11:7 “Then the one inside answers, ‘Don’t bother me. The door is
already locked, and my children are with me in bed. I can’t get up and
give you anything.’
HH: The father implies that he can't get up because he would disturb his
children sleeping in the same bed.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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>Pastor Fridolin Janzen
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>Brazil
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