[B-Greek] Two men in one bed?
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Thu Jul 20 15:23:53 EDT 2006
The scribes seem to have had a problem with the verse- as the definite
masculine article you reference is omitted by some very, very reliable
textual sources ( NA apparatus ad loc). But, fact is, the reading is
difficult, doesn't look like a slip of the eye, and so probably belongs
where it is. So what to make of it? Nolland says "probably a man and
wife are intended although the terms are all masculine in Greek".
I think he's probably right. There's no real need to read into the text
here something that may or may not be present; and there's also no need
to be so tied to grammatical rules that we don't allow biblical authors
a slip every now and again. (see Revelation!).
Best
Jim
Fridolin Janzen wrote:
> How would you explain the masculine article "O"?
>
> Fridolin Janzen
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: thebodyofjesusthenazoraion at juno.com
> [mailto:thebodyofjesusthenazoraion at juno.com]
> Sent: Thursday, July 20, 2006 2:28 PM
> To: fjanzen at gmx.net
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Two men in one bed?
>
> I dont see man in this scripture, luke 17:34 Eva Ritsema
>
>
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--
Jim West, ThD
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest -- Biblical Studies Resources
http://petrosbaptistchurch.blogspot.com -- Weblog
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