[B-Greek] Two men in one bed?

Jim West jwest at highland.net
Thu Jul 20 15:23:53 EDT 2006


The scribes seem to have had a problem with the verse- as the definite 
masculine article you reference is omitted by some very, very reliable 
textual sources ( NA apparatus ad loc).  But, fact is, the reading is 
difficult, doesn't look like a slip of the eye, and so probably belongs 
where it is.  So what to make of it?  Nolland says "probably a man and 
wife are intended although the terms are all masculine in Greek".

I think he's probably right.  There's no real need to read into the text 
here something that may or may not be present; and there's also no need 
to be so tied to grammatical rules that we don't allow biblical authors 
a slip every now and again.  (see Revelation!).

Best

Jim


Fridolin Janzen wrote:
> How would you explain the masculine article "O"?
> 
> Fridolin Janzen
> 
> -----Original Message-----
> From: thebodyofjesusthenazoraion at juno.com
> [mailto:thebodyofjesusthenazoraion at juno.com] 
> Sent: Thursday, July 20, 2006 2:28 PM
> To: fjanzen at gmx.net
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Two men in one bed?
> 
> I dont see man in this scripture, luke 17:34 Eva Ritsema
> 
> 
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-- 
Jim West, ThD

http://web.infoave.net/~jwest  -- Biblical Studies Resources
http://petrosbaptistchurch.blogspot.com  -- Weblog



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