[B-Greek] Romans 4:1

Stephen Payne spayneop at hotmail.com
Wed Jul 26 10:48:44 EDT 2006


Yes, since ABRAAM is indeclinable it "could" serve as subject for 
hEURHKENAI, but then the sentence would make little or no sense.  (1) "What 
then shall we say (that) Abraham finds our forefather according to flesh?" 
or (2) "What then shall we say (that) Abraham, our forefather, finds 
according to flesh?" We can certainly rule out (2) since hEURHKENAI is 
transitive, but there is nothing to provide an object.  And (1) is just 
nonsensical, since Abraham obviously is the forefather under issue.  
Therefore, I think one can rule out ABRAAM as subject for hEURHKENAI.

Regards,
Stephen Payne


>From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard at ont.com>
>To: B-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Romans 4:1
>Date: Wed, 26 Jul 2006 09:00:35 -0500
>
>Dear Stephen,
>
>TI OUN EROUMEN hEURHKENAI ABRAAM TON PROPATORA hHMWN KATA SARKA
> >
> >What then shall we say, Have we found Abraham to be our forefather
> >according to the flesh?
>
>
> >This is clearly a case of indirect discourse.  In indirect discourse the
> >dependent clause is set with its verb in the infinitive and, if different
> >than the main verb, the subject in the accustive.  Now, hHNWN is genitive 
>so
> >it cannot be the subject of hEURHKENAI, which also means that the subject
> >for it must be taken as the same for EROUMEN.  Since the main verb is 
>future
> >tense, the verb in indirect discourse will be future or present tense.
> >Thus, "What then shall we say we find Abraham our forefather according to
> >the flesh?"  But TI can also mean "why?"  So, perhaps, "Why then shall we
> >say we find Abraham our forefather according to the flesh?"
> >
> >
>
>HH: The subject of the infinitive can be Abraham.
>
>Yours,
>Harold Holmyard
>---
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