[B-Greek] TADE in Revelation
David Bielby
dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
Wed Mar 15 16:19:51 EST 2006
I'm also interested to know what the significance is of the word TADE in
Revelation 2-3 which is
only used in three times outside of Revelation in the GNT, yet is used
extensively in the LXX.
In particular the Torah & Major Prophets. In particular I see a phrase
TADE LEGEI used in
a number of prophetic passages like Ezekiel 44:9 which says DIA TOUTO
TADE LEGEI KURIOS hO QEOS..
and is repeated in a number of passages in Ezekiel. I just find it
interesting when a GNT term is rare.but
common in the LXX. Does this phrase in Rev 2:1 and the others I'm
looking at (Rev 2:8, 12, 18, 3:1, 7 & 14)
TWi ANGELWi THS EN EFESWi EKKLHSIAS GRAYON.TADE LEGEI hO KRATWN TOUS
hEPTA ASTERAS
EN Thi DEXIAi AUTOU not resonate with the phrases in Ezekiel
That say.TADE LEGEI KURIOS QEOS..and should this be seen as a self
reference to his deity?
Isn't it interesting that the only use of TADE outside of Revelation in
the GNT that uses the phrase TADE LEGEI also refers clearly to Deity
(Acts 21:11b-TADE LEGE TO PNEUMA TO AGION.) When TADE is used outside
of that 'formula' if you will.it seems to be simply descriptive. So my
question this.does my line of thinking fit with the usage of TADE in
general? was this a pattern outside the NT literature.am I off on this
idea or close to what's right?
Merci beaucoup..(Spacebah-for you Russian speaking friends).
David Bielby
Pastor
Vineyard Christian Fellowship
<mailto:dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org>
dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
<http://www.bloomingtonvineyard.org/> www.bloomingtonvineyard.org
www.dbielby.blogspot.com <http://www.dbielby.blogspot.com/>
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