[B-Greek] TADE in Revelation
Iver Larsen
iver at larsen.dk
Thu Mar 16 02:17:16 EST 2006
> I'm also interested to know what the significance is of the word TADE in
> Revelation 2-3 which is
> only used in three times outside of Revelation in the GNT, yet is used
> extensively in the LXX.
>
> In particular the Torah & Major Prophets. In particular I see a phrase
> TADE LEGEI used in
> a number of prophetic passages like Ezekiel 44:9 which says DIA TOUTO
> TADE LEGEI KURIOS hO QEOS..
> and is repeated in a number of passages in Ezekiel. I just find it
> interesting when a GNT term is rare.but
> common in the LXX. Does this phrase in Rev 2:1 and the others I'm
> looking at (Rev 2:8, 12, 18, 3:1, 7 & 14)
> TWi ANGELWi THS EN EFESWi EKKLHSIAS GRAYON.TADE LEGEI hO KRATWN TOUS
> hEPTA ASTERAS
> EN Thi DEXIAi AUTOU not resonate with the phrases in Ezekiel
> That say.TADE LEGEI KURIOS QEOS..and should this be seen as a self
> reference to his deity?
> Isn't it interesting that the only use of TADE outside of Revelation in
> the GNT that uses the phrase TADE LEGEI also refers clearly to Deity
> (Acts 21:11b-TADE LEGE TO PNEUMA TO AGION.) When TADE is used outside
> of that 'formula' if you will.it seems to be simply descriptive. So my
> question this.does my line of thinking fit with the usage of TADE in
> general? was this a pattern outside the NT literature.am I off on this
> idea or close to what's right?
The demonstrative hODE had pretty much gone out of use at the time of the NT (10 occurrences in the GNT and 454 in LXX).
Its occurrence in Revelation probably means that it stands for a Hebrew word (koh) that was still in use.
I think you can compare it with English "thus" as in "Thus says the Lord..." People don't speak like that anymore
unless in specific situations.
Revelation has a flavor in Greek not unlike the KJV in English. The TADE may well have caused the readers to remember
similar expressions in the Hebraic LXX.
Iver Larsen
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