[B-Greek] Subjunctive in John 6:39

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue May 2 17:46:12 EDT 2006


On May 2, 2006, at 5:08 PM, zacl1 at juno.com wrote:

> Hello,
> I am new to the world of New Testament Greek. I had a question  
> regarding John 6:39.
> What is the purpose of the verb "lose" being in the subjunctive  
> mood? Is it supposed to convey that Christ will not lose those  
> given to him, unless they fullfill a certain condition? Is the use  
> of HINA relvent?

Text: hINA PAN hO DEDWKEN MOI MH APOLESW EX AUTOU, ALLA ANASTHSW AUTO  
[EN] THi ESCATHi hHMERAi ...

The hINA is indeed relevant: ALL verbs within hINA clauses must be in  
the subjunctive.

> Thanks,
> Zac

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Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu or cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/





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