[B-Greek] Subjunctive in John 6:39
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue May 2 17:46:12 EDT 2006
On May 2, 2006, at 5:08 PM, zacl1 at juno.com wrote:
> Hello,
> I am new to the world of New Testament Greek. I had a question
> regarding John 6:39.
> What is the purpose of the verb "lose" being in the subjunctive
> mood? Is it supposed to convey that Christ will not lose those
> given to him, unless they fullfill a certain condition? Is the use
> of HINA relvent?
Text: hINA PAN hO DEDWKEN MOI MH APOLESW EX AUTOU, ALLA ANASTHSW AUTO
[EN] THi ESCATHi hHMERAi ...
The hINA is indeed relevant: ALL verbs within hINA clauses must be in
the subjunctive.
> Thanks,
> Zac
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Carl W. Conrad
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Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu or cwconrad2 at mac.com
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