[B-Greek] When did classification of nouns by gender start?
Brion Brooks
bjbrooks at gmnp.net
Fri May 12 09:02:42 EDT 2006
>From time to time over the years I've come across articles where the author has drawn conclusions from the fact that a particular MS used a 'masculine' vs. a 'feminine' noun (I'm not talking noun endings, but the gender of the noun itself). Is that distinction valid when analyzing Koine Greek or, for that matter, Biblical Hebrew?
I guess my question boils down to this: back in, say, 50 BCE, would an educated Judean have used gender names to grammatically classify nouns, or are such classifications a relatively recent phenomena?
I hope my question is clear, even if the rationale for it isn't.
Thanks,
Brion Brooks
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