[B-Greek] 1 Cor 14:5: present infinitive aspect

Eric Weiss papaweiss1 at yahoo.com
Sat May 13 18:29:24 EDT 2006


   For some reason, I cannot read gfsomsel's posts on B-Greek, whether using
Internet Explorer or Firefox.

This is part of what he wrote, apparently (in a cc: to me)

"gfsomsel at juno.com" <gfsomsel at juno.com> wrote: Gentlemen,
 I repeat a portion of the section I noted in Robertson previously
 "But both punctiliar and linear action are expressed, but not differentiated, in the present time by the same tense, as is true also of
the future."
This really is not a forum for developing arguments to support one's 
position on any point.  It is rather to understand what the text says as a linguistic phenomenon.  I personally do not care to be placed in a  position of engaging in some form of apologetics or elenctics.
  
george
gfsomsel
_________


Please let me clarify. Neither I nor Scott (I think I can speak for Scott here) are 
arguing about a doctrine or position. I was afraid my post from our friend might 
give that impression, but I did not mean it to, and apologize for any such 
misunderstanding. I only included it in its entirety to show the claim our friend 
was making for the present infinitive, and that he was supporting it with the 
works of two Greek grammarians, Jay and Blaiklock.

What I wish to know is if a supportable and reasonable argument can be made 
that LALEIN GLWSSAIS in 1 Corinthians 14:5 does mean to speak thus 
continuously (perhaps even 24/7) because it is a present infinitive, and indeed 
must mean to speak thus continuously because it is a present infinitive. I say 
"no" for reasons I have already given our friend, but I would like some support for 
either position, if anyone wishes or is able  to give it. GRAMMAR, not doctrinal 
position, is all I'm asking for.

Eric S. Weiss


		
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