[B-Greek] 1 Cor 14:5: present infinitive aspect
Eric Weiss
papaweiss1 at yahoo.com
Sat May 13 18:29:24 EDT 2006
For some reason, I cannot read gfsomsel's posts on B-Greek, whether using
Internet Explorer or Firefox.
This is part of what he wrote, apparently (in a cc: to me)
"gfsomsel at juno.com" <gfsomsel at juno.com> wrote: Gentlemen,
I repeat a portion of the section I noted in Robertson previously
"But both punctiliar and linear action are expressed, but not differentiated, in the present time by the same tense, as is true also of
the future."
This really is not a forum for developing arguments to support one's
position on any point. It is rather to understand what the text says as a linguistic phenomenon. I personally do not care to be placed in a position of engaging in some form of apologetics or elenctics.
george
gfsomsel
_________
Please let me clarify. Neither I nor Scott (I think I can speak for Scott here) are
arguing about a doctrine or position. I was afraid my post from our friend might
give that impression, but I did not mean it to, and apologize for any such
misunderstanding. I only included it in its entirety to show the claim our friend
was making for the present infinitive, and that he was supporting it with the
works of two Greek grammarians, Jay and Blaiklock.
What I wish to know is if a supportable and reasonable argument can be made
that LALEIN GLWSSAIS in 1 Corinthians 14:5 does mean to speak thus
continuously (perhaps even 24/7) because it is a present infinitive, and indeed
must mean to speak thus continuously because it is a present infinitive. I say
"no" for reasons I have already given our friend, but I would like some support for
either position, if anyone wishes or is able to give it. GRAMMAR, not doctrinal
position, is all I'm asking for.
Eric S. Weiss
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