[B-Greek] 1 Cor 14:5: present infinitive aspect

Eddie Mishoe edmishoe at yahoo.com
Sun May 14 11:46:05 EDT 2006


> To give a brief comment to Eddie, I am not saying
> that the aorist aspect is always best explained as a
> one-time event. I 
> said that in the case of this particular verb in the
> aorist infinitive, that is a reasonable description.
> I suggest you 
> take the time to look up the Greek data yourself.

Not sure why you have assumed I have not done this.
But why I objected to your first comment was because
you even gave another example (from Acts) to support
your contention on the Aorist. My point is still that
the Aorist has nothing to do with the number of times
an event takes place.

In the real world, events can be ongoing. And a
Present tense or an Aorist tense can be used to
reference these kinds of events. Neither one is to be
preferred. What determines which tense is selected is
how the author wants to portray that event for his
immediate literary purpose. To describe a person
running a mile would no more require a Present tense
as opposed to an Aorist tense. Once the author makes a
decision on how he wants to portray that mile run, he
will pick the appropriate tense.

I'm not telling you anything you don't already know.
My point was your definition and example in the
earlier post was misleading. We all agree on the
differences between Imperfectives and Perfectives.
That was not at all my point. Consider it one of my
pet peeves when someone suggests an Aorist implies
one-time occurrence. That is patently false.


Eddie Mishoe
Pastor

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