[B-Greek] Rev 1:1 referent of pronouns (he, his)

Dan Gleason dan-bgreek at hotmail.com
Tue May 23 03:11:07 EDT 2006


gfsomsel wrote
The revelation is about and through Jesus Christ.
God gave it to him (AUTWi)
that [he (i.e. Jesus Christ)] might reveal to his [God's] servants.  He 
[Jesus]
signified it [very important point that it is "signified"] by sending it 
through
his [Jesus'] messenger / angel to his [Jesus'] servant, John.  He [John]
witnessed [viewed / testified] [concerning] the Word of God, even the 
martyrdom
of Jesus Christ which he saw [THIS ASSUMES JOHN OF PATMOS IS JOHN THE 
APOSTLE - MANY SCHOLARS DISPUTE THIS].

APOKALUYIS IHSOU CRISTOU
hHN EDWKEN AUTW hO QEOS
DEIXAI TOIS DOULOIS AUTOU
hA DEI GENESQAI EN TACEI
KAI ESHMANEN APOSTEILAS DIA TOU AGGELOU AUTOU
TW DOULW AUTOU IWANNH

Is there any reason why this interpretation of the referent to the pronouns 
is incorrect?

A Revelation of Jesus Christ ...
which God gave to Him (God's Messenger) to show to his Slaves (members of 
the 7 assemblies) ...
the Things (ambiguous) which have to happen in Quickness.
And He (God) signified it, having sent it through his Messenger to his slave 
John ...
who gave Testimony to the Word of God ...
and to the Testimony of Jesus Christ (not past testimony, rather testimony 
to come) of every Thing he saw.

Dan Gleason

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