[B-Greek] Rev 1:1 referent of pronouns (he, his)
Dan Gleason
dan-bgreek at hotmail.com
Tue May 23 03:11:07 EDT 2006
gfsomsel wrote
The revelation is about and through Jesus Christ.
God gave it to him (AUTWi)
that [he (i.e. Jesus Christ)] might reveal to his [God's] servants. He
[Jesus]
signified it [very important point that it is "signified"] by sending it
through
his [Jesus'] messenger / angel to his [Jesus'] servant, John. He [John]
witnessed [viewed / testified] [concerning] the Word of God, even the
martyrdom
of Jesus Christ which he saw [THIS ASSUMES JOHN OF PATMOS IS JOHN THE
APOSTLE - MANY SCHOLARS DISPUTE THIS].
APOKALUYIS IHSOU CRISTOU
hHN EDWKEN AUTW hO QEOS
DEIXAI TOIS DOULOIS AUTOU
hA DEI GENESQAI EN TACEI
KAI ESHMANEN APOSTEILAS DIA TOU AGGELOU AUTOU
TW DOULW AUTOU IWANNH
Is there any reason why this interpretation of the referent to the pronouns
is incorrect?
A Revelation of Jesus Christ ...
which God gave to Him (God's Messenger) to show to his Slaves (members of
the 7 assemblies) ...
the Things (ambiguous) which have to happen in Quickness.
And He (God) signified it, having sent it through his Messenger to his slave
John ...
who gave Testimony to the Word of God ...
and to the Testimony of Jesus Christ (not past testimony, rather testimony
to come) of every Thing he saw.
Dan Gleason
_________________________________________________________________
FREE pop-up blocking with the new MSN Toolbar get it now!
http://toolbar.msn.click-url.com/go/onm00200415ave/direct/01/
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list