[B-Greek] Rev 1:1 referent of pronouns (he, his)

Harold Holmyard hholmyard at ont.com
Tue May 23 14:03:10 EDT 2006


Dave Smith wrote:

>I think the reason  why many insist that DOULOS => slave, is because of what
>the lexicons tell us on this point and the fact that slavery was prominent
>in the 1st century Roman world. As many as 1/3 of the population of Rome
>were salves. BAGD states "'servant' for 'slave' is largely confined to
>Biblical translation and early American times; in normal usage at the
>present time the two words are carefully distinguished" (205). This is
>preceded by the only definition of the word that BAGD gives, which is
>"slave." What he is saying, is that our idea "servant" does not connote the
>full force of the term, compared to DOULOW => become a slave, enslave,
>DOULEIA => slavery, DOULEUW=> be a slave, DOULH= female salve. There must be
>half a dozen words in the NT for servant, such as PAIS, OIKETHS, and
>hUPHRETHS, that may show both connotations. Several of these terms appear
>together in Luke 15, which gives a good overview within the same context.
>But it looks like DOULOS is a term with a singular definition, and those 1st
>century writers who choose the term knew exactly what it meant. Similar
>terms are CRISTOS and STAUROS/STAUROW. These became terms of honor in
>Christianity, but they were not so in the secular Roman world.
>
>I realize that this idea cuts across the grain of a western 21st century
>mind, but DOULOS is one of the relationships that Christians and Jews hold
>to God (cf. the Servant of Jehovah passages in Isaiah). A DOULOS may perform
>many functions, but the fact remains that s/he is a DOULOS and the
>KURIOS/OIKODESPOTHS has absolute authority, even the authority of life and
>death if the DOULOS rebels or deserts.
>  
>

HH: But to the Jews the word DOULOS may have taken the connotations of 
its LXX usage, where it seems to have implied more than a slave. Here is 
one verse, where DOULOS refers to Zebul in the LXX:

KJV: Judg. 9:28 And Gaal the son of Ebed said, Who is Abimelech, and who 
is Shechem, that we should serve him? is not he the son of Jerubbaal? 
and Zebul his officer? serve the men of Hamor the father of Shechem: for 
why should we serve him?

NIV: Judg. 9:28 Then Gaal son of Ebed said, “Who is Abimelech, and who 
is Shechem, that we should be subject to him? Isn’t he Jerub-Baal’s son, 
and isn’t Zebul his deputy? Serve the men of Hamor, Shechem’s father! 
Why should we serve Abimelech?

Judg. 9:28 Gaal son of Ebed said, “Who is Abimelech, and who are we of 
Shechem, that we should serve him? Did not the son of Jerubbaal and 
Zebul his officer serve the men of Hamor father of Shechem? Why then 
should we serve him?

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




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