[B-Greek] ESTIN at Matthew 1:20

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Sun May 28 09:24:50 EDT 2006


If it were as you propose then it would need to be in the nominative to agree with TO (I know, it could be acc, but it isn't).
   
  george
  gfsomsel
  ________

Awohili at aol.com wrote:
  There is a construction for "Holy Spirit" at the latter part of Matthew 1:20 
that apparently is found nowhere else in the NT:

TO GAR EN AUTHi GENNHQEN EK PNEUMATOS ESTIN AGIOU.

This is universally translated along the lines of "That which is conceived 
in her is of the Holy Spirit." However, nowhere else in the NT does ESTIN 
come between the words for Holy Spirit. Should we see here "Spirit [which] is 
holy" = Holy Spirit?

What prevents this from being translated as "That which is conceived of her 
by the Spirit is holy," i.e., the Child is holy? Other than the fact that no 
one else has ever translated it that way?

Thanks,

Solomon Landers
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george
gfsomsel
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