[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
mike.murphy at pb.com
mike.murphy at pb.com
Wed Oct 4 16:12:13 EDT 2006
Hi. I am going to ask a controversial question, and I am hoping
for a simple, COMMON SENSE answer rather than necessarily a
"doctrine safe" traditional answer.
In short, I am asking you all to consider this with a "fresh set
of eyes" as it were. In many cases, valuable -- even fundamental
-- doctrines such as immersion baptism and spiritual gifts have
been recovered by the rejection of long estabish academic
tradition in favor of a simple literal reading of the New
Testament without bias of creed.
In that spirit, I am curious if an alternate reading of John 1:1
is possible using "theos" as an adjective at the end of the
sentence.
(Joh 1:1) In(1722) the beginning(746) was(2258) the(3588)
Word,(3056)
and(2532) the(3588) Word(3056) was(2258) with(4314)
God,(2316)
and(2532) the(3588) Word(3056) was(2258) God.(2316)
The word "theos" is translated as "godly" in the King James
Version at least 5 times, (1 Tim 1:4, 2 Cor 1:12, 7:9, 7:11, and
11:2). The possible alternate reading would be, "In beginning was
the Word, and the Word was with God, and the word was godly. The
same was in the beginning with God."
In the case of 1 Timothy 1:4 using "theos" as an ajdective, the
King James Version does so clearly. (1Ti 1:4) Neither3366 give
heed4337 to fables3454 and2532 endless562 genealogies,1076
which3748 minister3930 questions,2214 rather3123 than2228
godly2316 edifying3622 which3588 is in1722 faith:4102 so do.
*2316=theos as in John 1:1
As you can see, this does not violate "common sense" as it is a
more natural reading that does not require the substance of God
to be strangely divided among several persons, most likely a
completely foreign doctrine to the monotheistic Jewish author.
The use of "theos" as an adjective -- without the definite
article -- might explain the need for the clarification on the
following line: "The same was in the beginning with God", so as
to render the meaning of the previous verse more clearly. (See
Moffat, '...the word was divine').
In fact, if John did not use "theos" as an adjective in ending
1:1, what then does verse 1:2 clarify at all? The lack of the
definite article on the last "theos" in John 1:1, taking in
combination with the presence of verse 1:2, seem to possibly
strengthen this alternative reading.
The only confession of the New Testament is that Jesus Christ was
the SON OF GOD. It is never clearly and umambiguously stated that
he was personally GOD except in controversial passages with
alternate readings, such as Acts 20:28 and 1 Timothy 3:16. What
the Bible does teach is that "God was in Christ", because God had
poured his spirit on him without measure and raised him from the
dead. What is certain is that corruption of the text is known to
have taken a Nicene form, e.g. 1 Jn 5:7-9
That the confession, "Jesus is the Son of God" alone is
considered orthodox by John:
(1Jo 4:14) And we have seen and testify that the Father sent the
Son to be the Savior of the world. (1Jo 4:15) Whoever shall
confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwells in him and he in
God.
(1Jo 5:5) Who is he who overcomes the world, but he who believes
that Jesus is the Son of God?
Therefore, it seems that John considered Jesus to be God's Son
prior to coming into the world, perhaps in a literal sense, and
that he was not considered to be the same person as God the
Father whatsoever.
(Joh 8:16) And yet if I do judge, My judgment is true; for I am
not alone, but I and the Father who sent Me. (Joh 8:17) It is
also written in your Law that the testimony of two men is true.
This fits other creeds outlined the APostolic teaching:
(Act 2:32) God raised up this Jesus, of which we all are
witnesses. (Act 3:26) Having raised up His son Jesus, God sent
Him to you first, to bless you in turning every one of you away
from his iniquities.
(Heb 5:7) For Jesus, in the days of His flesh, when He had
offered up prayers and supplications with strong cryings and
tears to Him who was able to save Him from death, and was heard
in that He feared, (Heb 5:8) though being a Son, yet He learned
obedience by the things which He suffered.
What is required for a Christian to belief? That Jesus is God?
No...
(Joh 20:31) But these are written so that you might believe that
Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you might
have life in His name.
If the early fathers did not consider any Trinity Creed needful
for salvation, perhaps they also did not prefer a Nicene reading
of John 1:1.
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