[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?

mike.murphy at pb.com mike.murphy at pb.com
Wed Oct 4 16:12:13 EDT 2006


Hi. I am going to ask a controversial question, and I  am  hoping
for  a  simple,  COMMON  SENSE  answer  rather than necessarily a
"doctrine safe" traditional answer.

In short, I am asking you all to consider this with a "fresh  set
of eyes" as it were.  In many cases, valuable -- even fundamental
-- doctrines such as immersion baptism and spiritual  gifts  have
been  recovered  by  the  rejection  of  long  estabish  academic
tradition in favor  of  a  simple  literal  reading  of  the  New
Testament without bias of creed.

In that spirit, I am curious if an alternate reading of John  1:1
is  possible  using  "theos"  as  an  adjective at the end of the
sentence.

(Joh  1:1)   In(1722)  the  beginning(746)  was(2258)   the(3588)
Word,(3056)
           and(2532) the(3588)  Word(3056)  was(2258)  with(4314)
God,(2316)
           and(2532) the(3588) Word(3056) was(2258) God.(2316)

The word "theos" is translated  as  "godly"  in  the  King  James
Version  at least 5 times, (1 Tim 1:4, 2 Cor 1:12, 7:9, 7:11, and
11:2). The possible alternate reading would be, "In beginning was
the  Word, and the Word was with God, and the word was godly. The
same was in the beginning with God."

In the case of 1 Timothy 1:4 using "theos" as an  ajdective,  the
King  James  Version does so clearly. (1Ti 1:4)  Neither3366 give
heed4337  to  fables3454  and2532   endless562   genealogies,1076
which3748   minister3930   questions,2214   rather3123   than2228
godly2316 edifying3622 which3588  is  in1722  faith:4102  so  do.
*2316=theos as in John 1:1

As you can see, this does not violate "common sense" as it  is  a
more  natural  reading that does not require the substance of God
to be strangely divided among  several  persons,  most  likely  a
completely foreign doctrine to the monotheistic Jewish author.

The use of "theos"  as  an  adjective  --  without  the  definite
article  --  might  explain the need for the clarification on the
following line: "The same was in the beginning with God",  so  as
to  render  the  meaning of the previous verse more clearly. (See
Moffat, '...the word was divine').

In fact, if John did not use "theos" as an  adjective  in  ending
1:1,  what  then  does  verse 1:2 clarify at all? The lack of the
definite article on the last  "theos"  in  John  1:1,  taking  in
combination  with  the  presence  of  verse 1:2, seem to possibly
strengthen this alternative reading.

The only confession of the New Testament is that Jesus Christ was
the SON OF GOD. It is never clearly and umambiguously stated that
he was personally  GOD  except  in  controversial  passages  with
alternate  readings,  such as Acts 20:28 and 1 Timothy 3:16. What
the Bible does teach is that "God was in Christ", because God had
poured  his spirit on him without measure and raised him from the
dead. What is certain is that corruption of the text is known  to
have taken a Nicene form, e.g. 1 Jn 5:7-9

That  the  confession,  "Jesus  is  the  Son  of  God"  alone  is
considered orthodox by John:

(1Jo 4:14)  And we have seen and testify that the Father sent the
Son  to  be  the  Savior of the world.  (1Jo 4:15)  Whoever shall
confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwells in him and he in
God.

(1Jo 5:5)  Who is he who overcomes the world, but he who believes
that Jesus is the Son of God?

Therefore, it seems that John considered Jesus to  be  God's  Son
prior  to  coming into the world, perhaps in a literal sense, and
that he was not considered to be  the  same  person  as  God  the
Father whatsoever.

(Joh 8:16)  And yet if I do judge, My judgment is true; for I  am
not  alone,  but I and the Father who sent Me.  (Joh 8:17)  It is
also written in your Law that the testimony of two men is true.

This fits other creeds outlined the APostolic teaching:

(Act 2:32)  God raised  up  this  Jesus,  of  which  we  all  are
witnesses.   (Act 3:26)  Having raised up His son Jesus, God sent
Him to you first, to bless you in turning every one of  you  away
from his iniquities.

(Heb 5:7)  For Jesus, in the days  of  His  flesh,  when  He  had
offered  up  prayers  and  supplications  with strong cryings and
tears to Him who was able to save Him from death, and  was  heard
in  that He feared, (Heb 5:8)  though being a Son, yet He learned
obedience by the things which He suffered.

What is required for a Christian to belief? That  Jesus  is  God?
No...

(Joh 20:31)  But these are written so that you might believe that
Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you might
have life in His name.

If the early fathers did not consider any Trinity  Creed  needful
for  salvation, perhaps they also did not prefer a Nicene reading
of John 1:1.






















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