[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?

Edward Andrews edandrews at adelphia.net
Thu Oct 5 14:48:03 EDT 2006


George:

It is nice that you mention Wallace's book, but then you say: "Granville 
Sharp's rule has not been overturned. LOGOS is definite and QEOS is 
likewise." This is a bit ambiguous, because Wallace does not argue for a 
definite QEOS. In fact, he talks of conservative scholars who have long used 
this to support their Trinity concept. yes, Wallace goes on to say it does 
not take away from the Trinity doctrine based on the context of John's 
gospel, but he lists the same old verses to support his context: John 8:58; 
10:30; 20:28. No, Sharp's rule has not been overturned, just misunderstood.

Daniel B. Wallace in his Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (1996; 257,260) 
tells us that most eminent scholars had long misunderstood this rule: 
“Almost immediately many scholars (especially of a more conservative stripe) 
misunderstood Colwell’s rule. They saw the benefit of the rule for affirming 
the deity of Christ in John 1:1. But what they thought Colwell was 
articulating was actually the converse of the rule itself. That is, they 
thought that the rule was: An anarthrous predicate that precedes the verb is 
usually definite. This is not the rule, nor can it be implied from the 
rule…..Colwell stated that a definite PN that precedes the verb is usually 
anarthrous. He did not say the converse, namely, and anarthrous PN that 
precedes the verb is usually definite. However, this is how the rule has 
been misunderstood by most scholars (including Colwell) since the article in 
JBL was written.”

Edward Andrews

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "George F Somsel" <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>
To: <Awohili at aol.com>; <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, October 05, 2006 2:28 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?


Granville Sharp's rule has not been overturned.  LOGOS is definite and QEOS 
is likewise.

When the copulative και connects two nouns of the same case, [viz. nouns 
(either substantive or adjective, or participles) of personal description, 
respecting office, dignity, affinity, or connexion, and attributes, 
properties, or qualities, good or ill], if the article hO, or any of its 
cases, precedes the first of the said nouns or participles, and is not 
repeated before the second noun or participle, the latter always relates to 
the same person that is expressed or described by the first noun or 
participle: i.e. it denotes a farther description of the first-named 
person … .

Daniel B. Wallace. (1999; 2002). Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics - 
Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (271). Zondervan Publishing House and 
Galaxie Software.


george
gfsomsel
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: "Awohili at aol.com" <Awohili at aol.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thursday, October 5, 2006 2:22:22 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?


OK, so forget the theology and get back to the grammar.  Is QEOS at  John
1:1c definite, indefinite, or qualitative?

Solomon Landers
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