[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Oct 5 16:13:00 EDT 2006
More . . .
Eusebius _Ecclesiastical History_, i.2
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3 For alone who beside the Father could clearly understand the Light which was before the world, the intellectual and essential Wisdom which existed before the ages, the living Word which was in the beginning with the Father and which was God, the first and only begotten of God which was before every creature and creation visible and invisible, the commander-in-chief of the rational and immortal host of heaven, the messenger of the great counsel, the executor of the Father’s unspoken will, the creator, with the Father, of all things, the second cause of the universe after the Father, the true and only-begotten Son of God, the Lord and God and King of all created things, the one who has received dominion and power, with divinity itself, and with might and honor from the Father; as it is said in regard to him in the mystical passages of Scripture which speak of his divinity: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”
Schaff, P. (1997). The Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers Second Series Vol. I. Eusebius: Church History, Life of Constantine the Great, and Oration in Praise of Constantine. (82). Oak Harbor: Logos Research Systems.
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I might note that there is some question regarding Eusebius' orthodoxy in that he sometimes appeared to support the Arian party, but here he seems fairly clear when he speak of the "Word . . . which was God."
george
gfsomsel
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----- Original Message ----
From: James Spinti <JSpinti at Eisenbrauns.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thursday, October 5, 2006 3:27:28 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
As I asked the last time this whole thing came up--maybe 3 weeks ago?
Why does no one who is arguing for the "a god" translation go back to
the early church fathers who knew Greek? Is this verse ever used as an
argument in any of their treatises (both for and against Arianism)? They
KNEW Greek, they spoke it, thought in it, breathed it-if you will. As
far as I can tell from my somewhat limited reading (but more than the
last time the question came up!), neither side used John 1 as an
argument. It was a non-starter, grammatically.
I am open to being shown wrong, but in view of our more limited
knowledge of Greek, we should show a bit of humility before their
silence in using the supposed "indefiniteness" of QEOS as an argument.
Maybe we should concentrate on reading Greek, and not trying to proof
text our own theological viewpoint, especially if our knowledge of Greek
is limited to a year or three of college/seminary Greek (and only NT
Koine at that!).
Frustratedly,
James
(yes, I have an advanced degree in Classics...)
________________________________
James Spinti
Marketing Director, Book Sales Division
Eisenbrauns, Good books for over 30 years
Specializing in Ancient Near Eastern and Biblical Studies
jspinti at eisenbrauns dot com
Web: http://www.eisenbrauns.com
Phone: 574-269-2011 ext 226
Fax: 574-269-6788
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of
> Awohili at aol.com
> Sent: Thursday, October 05, 2006 2:22 PM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
>
>
> OK, so forget the theology and get back to the grammar. Is
> QEOS at John
> 1:1c definite, indefinite, or qualitative?
>
> Solomon Landers
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