[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
Edward Andrews
edandrews at adelphia.net
Thu Oct 5 18:01:34 EDT 2006
Curtis:
The rendering of "a god." is due to:
(1)An anarticular theos(a theos without the article)which is sandwiched between two articular occurences.
(2)Context. The Word was "with" ho theos, the God.
(3)What the rest of the Bible says about Jesus.
(4) The genitive form of the noun does not require the article to be definite, whereas the nominative form normally does. It's that simple.
Edward Andrews
----- Original Message -----
From: "Curtis Hinson" <curtis at curtishinson.com>
To: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, October 05, 2006 4:53 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
> Normally on here we discuss merely such questions as if a noun is
> indefinite, and don't even comment on what the theological implications
> of whatever we perceive to be grammatically true are. This particular
> discussion was framed from the first as a theological discussion that
> merely happens to use some Greek now and then. Quoting Greek-speaking
> gentile early Christian leaders talking about Jewish writers who wrote
> in Greek doesn't make those discussions about grammar instead of theology.
>
> I'll be glad when this discussion is over.
>
> Bless the Name
> Curtis Hinson
> http://curtishinson.com
>
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