[B-Greek] Definiteness
Brian Abasciano
bvabasciano at gmail.com
Mon Oct 9 12:41:21 EDT 2006
RF: <Therefore I challenge Wallace?s rule (if Wallace?s meaning is that the three
concepts are mutually exclusive) and I ask for examples.>
BA: I provide this quote as an assumption Rolf has been making in his posts. I do not believe Wallace makes theses all mutually exclusive. I believe that he allows for qualitative definites and qualitative indefinites. See Wallace, 262-63 (note especially the chart on 263). Cf. his comments on Phil 2:13 (264), where he seems to take a definite noun (QEOS no less!) as also qualitative, and believes the emphasis to be on the qualitative sense. He is a little hazy in his discussion because he does seem to oppose the other two options with qualitative. But in total context, I think he is categorizing nouns based on their primary meaning (i.e., def, indef, or qual) and opposes qualitatives with defs, e.g., on that basis, apparently with the understanding that a qualitative CAN (but does not have to) also be def or indef. That's how I read him at this point.
God bless,
Brian Abasciano
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