[B-Greek] Is 50:1 in Septuagint

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Wed Oct 18 08:50:45 EDT 2006


On Oct 18, 2006, at 8:20 AM, reznik1 at juno.com wrote:

> Dear friends,
> Could you please help me with translation of TAIS hAMARTIAIS in Is  
> 50:1? Can it be translated as "to sins"? I am asking because I am  
> trying to figure out if Paul might have in mind the Septuagint  
> version of the text when he was writing Rom 7:14, "We know that the  
> law is spiritual; but I am unspiritual, sold as a slave to sin." I  
> realize though, that it is not a direct quotation.

No, I think it's instrumental, "by reason of your sins."
Text: IDOU TAIS hAMARTIAIS hUMWN EPRAQHTE KAI TAIS ANOMIAIS hUMWN  
EXAPESTEILA THN MHTERA hUMWN.

Note the parallel clauses, involving, I think, in this case, parallel  
usage of emphatic fronted dative plurals, the sense being "for/ 
because of/by reason of."

While Rom 7:14 has the same notion of selling into slavery, note that  
here we have THN hAMARTIAN as accusative object of the preposition hUPO:
Rom 7:14 OIDAMEN GAR hOTI hO NOMOS PNEUMATIKOS ESTIN, EGW DE SARKINOS  
EIMI PEPRAMENOS hUPO THN hAMARTIAN.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/





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