[B-Greek] Question Regarding John 4:11 kurios

Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Sep 1 12:38:02 EDT 2006


On Sep 1, 2006, at 9:22 AM, Harold Holmyard wrote:

>
>> I am interested to know if anyone understands why kurios is  
>> rendered as
>> sir in John 4:11?  I understand its use as a title for the purpose of
>> formal address, but I was wondering how it is concluded that the
>> Samaritan woman is not referring to Jesus as lord, but as sir?  Are
>> there any other places where this is brought out into English as sir?
>>
>>
>
> HH: Why would she refer to Jesus as lord in John 4:11?

She wouldn't.

Here is an example where the Hittites answered Abraham with the  
vocative KURIE.


GEN. 23:5 APEKRIQHSAN DE hOI hUIOI CET PROS ABRAAM LEGONTES 6 MH  
KURIE AKOUSON DE hHMWN BASILEUS PARA QEOU EI SU EN hHMIN EN TOIS  
EKLEKTOIS MNHMEIOIS hHMWN QAYON TON NEKRON SOU OUDEIS GAR hHMWN TO  
MNHMEION AUTOU KWLUSEI APO SOU TOU QAYAI TON NEKRON SOU EKEI

Elizabeth Kline







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