[B-Greek] Fw: Question Regarding John 4:11 kurios
Kevin W. Woodruff
cierpke at prodigy.net
Fri Sep 1 14:22:05 EDT 2006
James:
Since it is apparent at this time the Samaritian woman was not yet a believer, it is reasonable to translate this as "sir" as a term of polite and formal address. John 5:7 and 20:15 all have Jesus being addressed as "sir" because the speaker is unaware of Jesus' identity. In John 12;21, Philip is addressed as "sir" which is the Greek kurios( in the AV/KJV). In John 6:34, the NIV, ESV, NLT, New Jerusalem Bible, the NRSV, and Young's Literal translation, all have "sir." In John 9:36, the ESV, RSV, NRSV, NIV, New American Bible, the New Jerusalem Bible, and Young Literal translation, all render kurios as "sir."
Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div., M.S.I.S.
Library Director/Reference Librarian, Assistant Professor of Bible and Greek
Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary, 1815 Union Ave.
Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404, United States of America
423/493-4252 (office) 423/698-9447 (home) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
Cierpke at prodigy.net http://pages.prodigy.net/cierpke/woodruff.htm
----- Original Message ----
From: James Becknell <j_becknell at comcast.net>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Friday, September 1, 2006 12:18:11 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Question Regarding John 4:11 kurios
I am interested to know if anyone understands why kurios is rendered as
sir in John 4:11? I understand its use as a title for the purpose of
formal address, but I was wondering how it is concluded that the
Samaritan woman is not referring to Jesus as lord, but as sir? Are
there any other places where this is brought out into English as sir?
---
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