[B-Greek] Fwd: Imperfect and Aorist Aspects
cwestf5155 at aol.com
cwestf5155 at aol.com
Thu Sep 7 22:25:07 EDT 2006
-----Original Message-----
From: cwestf5155 at aol.com
To: mwinzer at pap.com.au
Sent: Thu, 7 Sep 2006 8:22 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Imperfect and Aorist Aspects
Dear Rev. Winzer,
Yes. All of these things weighed in.
Aspect studies were being conducted and theories posited in the linguistic field.
In lexicography and grammer, people started asking "What is the minimal semantic contribution of the form or lexis that accounts for all of the occurences?"
Biblical scholars noticed that the sub-categories for tenses argued against the temporal contribution as the minimal semantic contribution (especially since context made the temporal element clear--which required the qualifications).
Cindy Westfall
Assistant Professor
McMaster Divinity College
-----Original Message-----
From: mwinzer at pap.com.au
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thu, 7 Sep 2006 6:24 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Imperfect and Aorist Aspects
May I ask, did a move away from tense theory emerge because of the constant
need to invent new sub-categories for tenses, e.g. epistolary aorist? Or was
it simply a case of linguistics evolving from its philological roots? Or
other factors?
Yours sincerely,
Rev. Matthew Winzer
----- Original Message -----
From: "Randall Buth" <randallbuth at gmail.com>
To: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, September 08, 2006 10:11 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Imperfect and Aorist Aspects
> Con egrapsen:
>>I think it is worth noting in this discussion, that it should not be about
> whether or not aspect exists. The existence of aspect in Greek has been
> acknowledged by most grammars for the last 100 years at least. Though the
> terminology was confused and conflated with Aktionsart, Zeitart etc.,
> especially up until 1925. The real question is: how important aspect is in
> relation to 'tense', and whether or not tense exists.
>
>>I have just completed a PhD thesis on verbal aspect in Greek (it is being
> examined at the moment), and my opinion is (since Brian is taking a poll
> on
> the issue) that the existence of aspect is undeniable. Personally I agree
> with McKay, Porter and Decker that tense does not exist. ...>
>
> I think that you've overstated the case for McKay. If I remember
> correctly he believed that aspect was the primal distinction in Greek
> but that it included tense.
>
> As an aside,
> sometimes I find Greek people getting comfort from a supposed sister
> Biblical language "that does not have tense", as though Hebrew was
> such. (Porter, for one, explicitly used such a supporting argument.)
>
> I like to ask Hebraists how to say approximately "tomorrow I will
> come" in Biblical Hebrew.
>
> I would accept MAHAR AVO, UVATI MAHAR, ANI BA MAHAR,
> but I would not accept *MAHAR BATI (* asterix marks unacceptable form).
> they didn't say that in biblical Hebrew. Ever.
> Kind of curious: if adverbs marked time relationship and verbs only
> marked aspect,
> why no *MAHAR BATI? Partial Ans: Ancient biblical Hebrew writers
> hadn't read 19th century non-Hebrew Hebrew grammars. Bottom line:
> Hebrew had both aspectual and temporal features within its binary
> TENSE-ASPECT-MOOD system. (PS: *MAHAR BATI would correspond in greek
> to *AYRION HLQON. I'm afraid I don't accept that either for 'tomorrow
> I will come'.)
>
> ERRWSO
> Randall Buth
>
> --
> Randall Buth, PhD
> www.biblicalulpan.org
> χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη
> שלום לכם וברכות
> ybitan at mscc.huji.ac.il
> randallbuth at gmail.com
> ---
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