[B-Greek] Imperfect and Aorist Tense-Aspects
Eddie Mishoe
edmishoe at yahoo.com
Fri Sep 15 14:27:09 EDT 2006
CWest wrote:
In the case of the aorist, the writer depicts
simple complete action, which accounts for its close
association with past
events, but also these other occurences. Notice that I
say "accounts
for" not predicts.
This is just one example of what I've mentioned in
other posts. Linguistically, one would NOT expect an
event to be PORTRAYED as complete (your Aorist) more
so in the past than in any other temporal reference.
We should fine tens of thousands of writers portraying
events in the future as complete (something you find
rare in Jude 14), and therefore, we should expect to
find tens of thousands of Aorists being used in this
fashion. On what linguistic grounds would you contend
that a writer rarely would want to portray a present
or future event as complete? Jude 14 should not at all
be rare. Presenting the Lord's coming as complete is
no more to be expected than presenting it as in
progress.
Elizabeth gave us an example of English usage based on
a word used by Jimi!!! Are we really trying to codify
the English language based on such usages? Rather,
shouldn't we expect more of these anomolies (poetic
license)?
My comment that Porter hardly has taken a linguistic
approach, was not in reference to his system as a
whole, but the specific instance I mentioned. I have
learned much from Porter; he's clearly brilliant. I
just don't buy into his system. I will say this: I
looked at all his examples of 'future referring'
Aorists and am now more so convinced of the
grammatical tense of Greek than before I read his
Verbal Aspect. I simply don't see his argument as
being remotely valid.
Please do not take offense at my statement about
Porter. I did not want to imply he was not a linguist.
It is just that his linguistic approach to the Greek
verbal network to me is thoroughly unconvincing.
Eddie Mishoe
Pastor
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