[B-Greek] Use of Imperatives in I Peter 1:13

Harold Holmyard hholmyard at ont.com
Thu Sep 21 12:35:05 EDT 2006


Joe Hightower wrote:
> I am studying this Passage an was interested to learn that an independent Participle can have an imperative score. I was surprised though to see sheet Schreiner, Davids and Allichaels (3 commentators) all indicate the the participles, while imperative, subordinate to the imperative verb.  The participles ANAZWSAMENOI and NHPHONTES describe how the mindest underlying the verb ELPISATE. 
>    
>   Doesn't that make the participles dependent?  Wallace indicates that for participles to be imperative they should be independent.
>    
>   I am confused.  I would have taken the the three to be three distinct commands, not 1 command with 2 subordinate commands
>    
>   Can someone help me understand?




HH: Joe, the section in Wallace is on pages 
650-652, and it states about independent verbal 
participles used as an imperative:

Included in this category are those participles 
that function as though they were finite verbs and 
are not dependent on any verb in the context for 
their mood (thus distinct from attendant 
circumstance).

HH: He also says:

The participle may function just like an 
imperative. This use of the participle is not to 
be attached to any verb in the context, but is 
grammatically independent. The imperatival 
participle is quite rare.

HH: The participles in 1 Pet 1:13 are attached to 
a verb in the context, so they are not what 
Wallace was talking about here. They do derive 
their mood from the main verb. They are 
participles of attendant circumstance.

HH: Wallace gives Rom 12:9 as an example of an 
independent verbal participle as an imperative, 
where there is no verb in the context for which 
the participle can easily be attached. However, 
there is an understood verb in the first half of 
the verse, so the participles could be subordinate 
to that.

HH: He also gives 1 Pet 2:18 as an example. 
However, in 1 Pet 2:18 I can see the participle as 
perhaps loosely attached to the verbs of the 
previous verse, so that the command to servants 
was a specific application of the more general 
principles for all people given in the previous 
verse.

HH: I have always found this category of an 
independent verbal participle a bit tricky myself, 
but I see no reason to suppose it in 1 Pet 1:13.

HH: To show a good example of a participle of 
attendant circumstance used imperatively, Wallace 
(p. 641) gives Matt 2:13 and the participle 
EGERQEIS. It functions imperatively but takes its 
mood from the main verb PARALABE. ! Peter 1:13 
functions the same way with its participles.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




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