[B-Greek] Use of Imperatives in I Peter 1:13
Harold Holmyard
hholmyard at ont.com
Fri Sep 22 19:35:33 EDT 2006
Dear Joe,
Thanks for the pagination.
> Two questions. Wallace lists some criteria to check for including that the participle(s)
are in the aorist. ANAZWSAMENOI is but NHPHONTES
is not (it is a present participle).
How does this affect the determination. He seems
to indicate that these are general rules,
not strict.
HH: Right. I don't think the present participle,
even if it is rare, changes the category. Look at
his example from Heb 12:1 on p. 644, which also
has a present participle.
> Secondly, he points to the need to first determine whether the participles would make sense
if assigned another way. I cannot see one, but
Grudem and Stibbs both treat them simply
as participles, creating three separate commands.
HH: They function the way Wallace says participles
of attendant circumstance work. See, again, his
examples on pages 643-644: Mt 9:13, 18b; 28:7; Lk
5:14; 16:6;17:19; Acts 10:13; 16:9.
HH: You could look at the present participle as
manner, I suppose, showing the way one is when he
girds up the loins of his mind, but it seems
overly fine as a distinction. Remember, these are
only English categories. They do not exist in
Greek really. And as Wallace says, you analyze on
the basis of the sense, not the English
translation (p. 640, paragraph on Clarification).
So the fact that an English translation uses an
imperative does not mean that we cannot evaluate
it as a participle of attendant circumstance. See
the translations he gives for his own examples
that I just listed. They are usually translated as
imperatives.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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