[B-Greek] PASXA and SIKERA --transliteration from Hebrew
Ken Penner
ken.penner at acadiau.ca
Mon Apr 2 14:00:13 EDT 2007
Dear Al,
You wrote:
" Yes, I am aware of what Randy is saying but unless I see a lot better evidence than what is being cited I am not convinced, and that includes the use of HEBRAISTI +. You are not suggesting, are you, that HEBRAISTI refers to the Hebrew language as opposed to the Aramaic language? "
Yes, that is exactly what I am suggesting. This is the conclusion of my 2004 SBL paper “Greek Names for Hebrew and Aramaic: A Case for Lexical Revision,” Society of Biblical Literature Annual Meeting, Greek Language and Linguistics Section, November 2004, the handout of which is attached. Yes, I think Rabshakeh addressed the Jerusalemites in Hebrew. What do you think?
Ken
Ken M. Penner, Ph.D. (McMaster)
Dead Sea Scrolls scholars' list owner, http://mailman.mcmaster.ca/mailman/listinfo/g-megillot
To me it means nothing more than the language the Jews commonly used, Aramaic. Hebrew was even WRITTEN in Aramaic square script. Did Rabshakeh address the Jerusalemites in Hebrew? The LXX in Isaiah and Kings calls it Judean.
Perhaps most importantly, unlike Josephus, the translators of the LXX should little concern for Greek pronunciation of Semitic terms. But as I said, the role of Hebrew as opposed to Aramaic in the second temple period is not a topic for this list.
Al
We should add to Pascha and Sabbata (Josephus, Antiquities 1.33) the word Asarta (Josephus, Antiquities 3.252), and also Bethzatha or Bethesda or Bethsaida in John 5:2, Gabbatha in John 19:13, Golgotha in John 19:17. All of these words are said to be "Hebrew" (Hebrais/Hebraisti/in language of the Hebrews).
The following words called Hebrew look Aramaic:
1. John’s Βηθζαθα/Βηθεσδα (Ἑβραΐστι in John 5:2)
2. John’s Γαββαθα (Ἑβραΐστι in John 19:13)
3. John’s Γολγοθ(α) (Ἑβραΐστι in John 19:17)
4. Josephus’ σάββατα (κατὰ τὴν ῾Εβραίων διάλεκτον in A.J. 1.33)
5. Josephus’ ἀσαρθὰ (ἣν Ἑβραῖοι καλοῦσι in A.J. 3.252)
6. Philo’s Πάσχα (῾Εβραῖοι πατρίῳ γλώττῃ καλοῦσι) in Decal. 159 and Spec. Leg. 2.145
The Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible has Aramaic-looking transliterations (σικερα, Πασχα, σάββατα) because alpha endings are used to help Greek pronunciation (BDF §141(3)) (cf. άλφα, βητα, δελτα, from אלף, בית, דלת, etc.) Alpha was a natural sound to add, to keep the word from ending with a consonant. According to Smyth, something similar happened in the transformation of the accusative singular ending nu into alpha in the third declension.
What evidence will help us decide whether the A is from Aramaic or added to help Greek pronunciation?
Ken
Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.
Assistant Professor of Biblical Studies,
Acadia Divinity College,
Wolfville, Nova Scotia,
Canada B4P 2R6.
(902)585-2213
http://purl.org/net/kmpenner/
PASCA, however,
happens to be Aramaic, not Hebrew (as determinative final A
indicates). The phenomenon as such —— and SIKERA belongs
here too—— testifies to the extensive influence of the lingua
franca of the Persian period (Aramaic) among Jews as well as others.
The same influence is underscored by the fact that the Greek
translators of the LXX often 'Aramaized' their Hebrew source, i.e.
ascribing Aramaic meanings to Hebrew words and morphemes.
Al
—
Albert Pietersma
21 Cross Street,
Weston ON Canada M9N 2B8
Email: albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Homepage: http://www.chass.utoronto.ca/~pietersm
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