[B-Greek] PASCA

Albert Pietersma albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Tue Apr 3 10:51:57 EDT 2007


Again this isn't the list for such a discussion. But surely at least as 
pertinent a question as Ken's is how to explain the form as a 
transcription from Hebrew.  The reference to BdB §141, which Ken gave 
earlier, may be adequate for the NT but it is not for the Septuagint.  
Randall is correct in noting that the issue is in the first instance a 
Septuagint issue. That being the case it needs to be put in the context 
of  transcriptions from Semitic in the LXX.
Al (signing off on this issue)

On Apr 3, 2007, at 8:18 AM, Ken Penner wrote:

> What evidence do we have that PASCA is "an exact transliteration of  
> the **Aramaic** word for 'Passover'  (_paskha_);"? I see problems with 
> this supposition.
>
> We have evidence that the first vowel of the Aramaic word for passover 
> is I rather than A, judging by earliest vocalized Aramaic instance of 
> PSX (Targums Onkelos and Jonathan both have pisxa' ) and the full 
> orthography of Pesikta de Rav Kahana, which has PYSXH.
>
> Ken
>
> Ken M. Penner, Ph.D. (McMaster)
> Acadia/Greek&Hebrew
> Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic vocabulary memorization software:
> http://purl.org/net/kmpenner/flash
>
> frjsilver at optonline.net wrote:
>
>> PASCA is not  a natively Greek word.  It's an exact
>> transliteration of  the **Aramaic** word for 'Passover'
>> (_paskha_);  that's the word Jesus used in ordinary speech,
>> and it's what the NT uses.  In Hebrew, 'Passover' is _pesakh_
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Albert Pietersma
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Email: albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
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