[B-Greek] Mark 16:9 and the comma
Anthony Buzzard
anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com
Fri Apr 6 13:08:48 EDT 2007
Carl, My apologies for not being clearer. I am referring to commas in
the translations, granting that the MSS do not have commas here. I
wondered if it is natural or even possible at all to start a sentence
simply with an aorist participle -- ANASTAS-- and separate it from
"early on the first day of the week"
I agree that the comma is perfectly appropriate after SABBATOU, but
could a single aorist participle stand alone as an adverbial phrase,
ie "having risen, early on the first day he appeared first....."
Could we say that placing a comma in English after the aorist
participle is just impossible?
Anthony.
At 12:59 PM 4/6/2007, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>In which Greek text of Mk 16:9 do you find a comma immediately
>following ANASTAS? I do think a comma is perfectly appropriate
>after SABBATOU, since the participial phrase functions much as
>an adverbial clause (it is a circumstantial participle).
>
>Carl W. Conrad
>
>
>
>On Friday, April 06, 2007, at 12:42PM, "Anthony Buzzard"
><anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com> wrote:
> >Could anyone comment on the validity or otherwise of placing a comma
> >after a past participle as an opening word in a Greek sentence. I am
> >referring to Mark 16:9 ANASTAS DE PROI PROTE SABBATOU. This is
> >normally translated "having risen on the first day of the
> >week." Some want to put the comma after the participle ANASTAS
> >DE. Is this a natural way to read the Greek? Can one begin with a
> >participle by itself and have a comma after it?
> >Anthony Buzzard.
> >
> >Anthony Buzzard
> >www.restorationfellowship.org
> >
> >---
> >B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
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> >
> >
Anthony Buzzard
www.restorationfellowship.org
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