[B-Greek] Mark 16:9 and the comma

Anthony Buzzard anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com
Fri Apr 6 13:08:48 EDT 2007


Carl, My apologies for not being clearer. I am referring to commas in 
the translations, granting that the MSS do not have commas here. I 
wondered if it is natural or even possible at all to start a sentence 
simply with an aorist participle -- ANASTAS-- and separate it from 
"early on the first day of the week"
I agree that the comma is perfectly appropriate after SABBATOU, but 
could a single aorist participle stand alone as an adverbial phrase, 
ie "having risen, early on the first day he appeared first....."
Could we say that placing a comma in English after the aorist 
participle is just impossible?
Anthony.



At 12:59 PM 4/6/2007, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>In which Greek text of Mk 16:9 do you find a comma immediately
>following ANASTAS? I do think a comma is perfectly appropriate
>after SABBATOU, since the participial phrase functions much as
>an adverbial clause (it is a circumstantial participle).
>
>Carl W. Conrad
>
>
>
>On Friday, April 06, 2007, at 12:42PM, "Anthony Buzzard" 
><anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com> wrote:
> >Could anyone comment on the validity or otherwise of placing a comma
> >after a past participle as an opening word in a Greek sentence. I am
> >referring to Mark 16:9 ANASTAS DE PROI PROTE SABBATOU.  This is
> >normally translated "having risen on the first day of the
> >week."  Some want to put the comma after the participle ANASTAS
> >DE.  Is this a natural way to read the Greek? Can one begin with a
> >participle by itself and have a comma after it?
> >Anthony Buzzard.
> >
> >Anthony Buzzard
> >www.restorationfellowship.org
> >
> >---
> >B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
> >B-Greek mailing list
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> >
> >

Anthony Buzzard
www.restorationfellowship.org 


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