[B-Greek] Mark 16:9 and the comma

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Fri Apr 6 17:00:56 EDT 2007


PRWi PRWTHi SABBATOU are clearly part of a phrase qualifying ANASTAS 
adverbially. And note that the participle ANASTAS is followed by the DE,
indicating its connection with preceding narrative. ANASTAS is not in any
way independent.

My problem with your earlier query was that it seemed to be based upon
reading with an interlinear and asking how the English equivalent parts
related to the syntax of the Greek sentence. But our concern in B-Greek is
strictly with understanding the Greek in its own sequence and structure
(our FAQ states that it is assumed that participants have a basic under-
standing of Biblical Greek.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/

 
On Friday, April 06, 2007, at 04:36PM, "Anthony Buzzard" <anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com> wrote:
>Carl, My question is about Greek syntax. Is it possible to begin a 
>sentence with ANASTAS, as an adverbial phrase standing alone. Or does 
>the ANASTAS belong with PROI PROTE....?
>
>Anthony Buzzard
>
>At 02:01 PM 4/6/2007, you wrote:
>>I would suggest that if the concern is about proper English
>>usage in translation, the discussion be taken to the B-Translation
>>List. Our focus here is on understanding the Greek text, not on
>>English usage. Doesn't it seem a little odd to be asking about
>>the legitimacy of placing a comma in English after a GREEK
>>aorist participle?
>>
>>Carl W. Conrad
>>
>>On Friday, April 06, 2007, at 01:09PM, "Anthony Buzzard" 
>><anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com> wrote:
>> >Carl, My apologies for not being clearer. I am referring to commas in
>> >the translations, granting that the MSS do not have commas here. I
>> >wondered if it is natural or even possible at all to start a sentence
>> >simply with an aorist participle -- ANASTAS-- and separate it from
>> >"early on the first day of the week"
>> >I agree that the comma is perfectly appropriate after SABBATOU, but
>> >could a single aorist participle stand alone as an adverbial phrase,
>> >ie "having risen, early on the first day he appeared first....."
>> >Could we say that placing a comma in English after the aorist
>> >participle is just impossible?
>> >Anthony.
>> >
>> >
>> >
>> >At 12:59 PM 4/6/2007, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>> >>In which Greek text of Mk 16:9 do you find a comma immediately
>> >>following ANASTAS? I do think a comma is perfectly appropriate
>> >>after SABBATOU, since the participial phrase functions much as
>> >>an adverbial clause (it is a circumstantial participle).
>> >>
>> >>Carl W. Conrad
>> >>
>> >>
>> >>
>> >>On Friday, April 06, 2007, at 12:42PM, "Anthony Buzzard"
>> >><anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com> wrote:
>> >> >Could anyone comment on the validity or otherwise of placing a comma
>> >> >after a past participle as an opening word in a Greek sentence. I am
>> >> >referring to Mark 16:9 ANASTAS DE PROI PROTE SABBATOU.  This is
>> >> >normally translated "having risen on the first day of the
>> >> >week."  Some want to put the comma after the participle ANASTAS
>> >> >DE.  Is this a natural way to read the Greek? Can one begin with a
>> >> >participle by itself and have a comma after it?
>> >> >Anthony Buzzard.
>> >> >
>> >> >Anthony Buzzard
>> >> >www.restorationfellowship.org
>> >> >
>> >> >---
>> >> >B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
>> >> >B-Greek mailing list
>> >> >B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>> >> >http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >
>> >Anthony Buzzard
>> >www.restorationfellowship.org
>
>Anthony Buzzard
>www.restorationfellowship.org 
>
>
>



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