[B-Greek] Titus 2:11

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Aug 15 22:35:40 EDT 2007


Ἐπεφάνη γὰρ ἡ χάρις τοῦ θεοῦ σωτήριος πᾶσιν ἀνθρώποις 
EPEFANH GAR hH XARIS TOU QEOU SWTHRIOS PASIN ANQRWPOIS

What is the subject?  Obviously, what appears in the nominative case (unless it is the subject of an infinitive or an absolute clause).  ἡ χάρις [hH XARIS] fills that requirement as I'm sure you already noticed.  The thing about this is that there is another nominative, namely σωτήριος [SWTHRIOS], so what is its function?  As BDAG (and BAGD previously) notes this functions as an adjective here.  I think the translation which many of us became used to through the AV "bringing salvation" is somewhat to blame here for the confusion.  It would appear that the word σωτήριος [SWTHRIOS] would be something related to salvation since the word from which this derives is σωτήρ [SWTHR] or "savior, deliverer, preserver."  Which would lead one to think that it is the object of the verb "bringing" which is then distributed to "all men" but "bringing" really doesn't exist in the text as a verb.    Σωτήριος [SWTHRIOS] qualifies ἡ
 χάρις [hH XARIS].   The graciousness or kindness is salvific in nature, and it is here said to have appeared to all men.  Thus, as much as it pains me to need to say so, the AV got it more or less right when it translated "that bringeth salvation" though I would have preferred a translation which eliminated the "that."
 
george
gfsomsel
 
Therefore, O faithful Christian, search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.
 
- Jan Hus
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: Denise Parkes <deniseparkes at hotmail.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Wednesday, August 15, 2007 9:01:48 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Titus 2:11


Titus 2:11:  EPEFANH GAR H XARIS TOU QEOU SWTHRIOS PASIN ANQRWPOIS.

This verse seems to be straitforward.  Both the NASB and the RSV translate 
this verse thus:  For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to 
all men.

But the NIV and the KJV add the word "that" to give a different meaning ie: 
For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men.

This NIV/KJV translation seems awkward, especially when the word "that" has 
to be added to make it work.

Is there ambiguity in the original Greek?

Looking forward to your help,

Denise Parkes

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