[B-Greek] Titus 2:11

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Thu Aug 16 01:30:58 EDT 2007


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
>
> On Aug 15, 2007, at 10:01 PM, Denise Parkes wrote:
>
>> Titus 2:11:  EPEFANH GAR H XARIS TOU QEOU SWTHRIOS PASIN ANQRWPOIS.
>>
>> This verse seems to be straitforward.  Both the NASB and the RSV
>> translate
>> this verse thus:  For the grace of God has appeared, bringing
>> salvation to all men.
>>
>> But the NIV and the KJV add the word "that" to give a different
>> meaning ie:
>> For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men.
>>
>> This NIV/KJV translation seems awkward, especially when the word
>> "that" has to be added to make it work.
>>
>> Is there ambiguity in the original Greek?
>>
>> Looking forward to your help,
>
> SWTHRIOS is a predicative adjective, in agreement with hH CARIS but
> functioning like an adverb with EPEFANH; NIV/KJV translators are
> understanding SWTHRIOS as an attributive adjective and they
> understand PASIN ANQRWPOIS as construing with EPEFANH rather than
> with SWTHRIOS EPEFANH. I would have thought that if SWTHRIOS is
> attributive it would have the article (CARIS ... hH SWTHRIOS).
>
> NASB/RSV seem more accurate to me, but the difference is a matter of
> how the adjective SWTHRIOS and the dative phrase PASIN ANQRWPOIS are
> being construed.

It may be helpful to look a bit more at the context and the semantics in 
addition to the syntax which is ambiguous.
The following words in v. 12 are: PAIDEUOUSA hHMAS...- this grace has taught 
us...
Since it is "we" who have learned something, it seems most likely that it is 
primarily to "us" that this message has been revealed - EPEFANH. Or, even if 
it in a sense has come to everybody since it "has appeared on the scene" 
through Christ, it is only "us" who have seen it. For this and other 
reasons, I would take the final dative noun phrase as construing with 
SWTHRIOS as the benificiary/recipient of salvation.
Another question is the sense of the adjective. BAGD notes that this 
adjective is normally used substantively in the GNT (TO SWTHRION), in fact 
four out of five occurrence, with Tit 2:11 the only adjectival one. They 
give the sense of the substantive as "a means of deliverance". So why not 
give the same sense to the adjectival usage?
The more common word for "deliverance/salvation" is SWTHRIA (46 times in the 
GNT). This word appears to refer to actual experience of salvation. In 
contrast, SWTHRIOS in all its occurences in the GNT seems to fit the sense 
of "means of salvation". It is derived from the noun SWTHR as George pointed 
out, and the SWTHR is the one who gives SWTHRIA, so he is SWTHRIOS, the way 
to or means of salvation.

With this background a free translation that IMO would be more accurate and 
faithful to the intended sense could be: "For the grace of God has been 
revealed as a means of salvation for all people".

All the translations cited above belong to the literal camp and that is why 
they tend to lose or at least obscure the intended meaning. In this case, 
some (not all) of the meaning-based translations are somewhat more accurate, 
e.g.
TEV: For God has revealed his grace for the salvation of all people. 2.12 
That grace instructs us to give up ungodly living and worldly passions,...
Or in simpler language:
NCV: "That is the way we should live, because God's grace that can save 
everyone has come. 12 It teaches us not to live against God nor to do the 
evil things the world wants to do."

Iver Larsen
Bible translation consultant 




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