[B-Greek] PROS & EIS translated as "against"

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Sat Aug 18 06:51:51 EDT 2007


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
>
> Reformatted and forwarded by Moderator  for: "Shawn Peasley"
> <nt_srp at hotmail.com>
> Date: August 18, 2007 3:18:39 AM EDT
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: PROS & EIS translated as "against"
>
>
> I have very little knowledge about biblical greek, but have mostly
> tried to sort out meanings by studying lexicons and reading
> interlinear translations of the greek NT, and comparing how the greek
> words are used in other passages, reading english translations, and
> seeking advice from those more knowledgeable.

Do you have access to the dictionary by Louw and Nida? It gives a host of
possible senses for PROS:
a to (extension): pros#84.18
b against (extension): pros#84.23
c at (location): pros#83.24
d among (location): pros#83.9
e to (experiencer): pros#90.58
f about (content): pros#90.25
g with (association): pros#89.112
h for (purpose): pros#89.60
i end in (result): pros#89.44
j according to (correspondence): pros#89.9
k toward (time): pros#67.162
l at (time): pros#67.16
m to the point of (degree): pros#78.51
n with regard to (specification): pros#89.7
o in opinion of (view-point participant): pros#90.20
p against (opposition): pros#90.33
q compared to (comparison): pros#64.17

Which one of all of these is relevant depends on the context, how it is
combined with other words (including the case used).

Both b) and p) are glossed "against".
For b) L&N says:
extension toward a goal, involving presumed contact and reaction - ‘against.’
... ‘in order that you do not dash your foot against a stone’ Matthew 4:6;
... ‘it is hard on you to kick against the goad’ Acts 26:14
For p) they say:
a marker of opposition, with the probable implication of a reaction or
response to a previous event - ‘against.’ ἔγνωσαν γὰρ ὅτι πρὸς αὐτοὺς τὴν
παραβολὴν εἶπεν EGNWSAN GAR hOTI PROS AUTOUS THN PARABOLHN EIPEN ‘for
they knew that he spoke this parable against them’ Mark 12:12; ἐάν τις πρός
τινα ἔχῃ μομφήν  EAN TIS PROS TINA ECHi MOMFHN ‘if anyone has any blame
against anyone’ Colossians 3:13. For another interpretation of PROS in Mark
12:12 and Colossians 3:13, see 90.25.
For f) (90.25) they say:
a marker of content, particularly when persons are involved and/or the
context suggests some type of response being made - ‘about, to.’ ἔγνωσαν γὰρ
ὅτι πρὸς αὐτοὺς τὴν παραβολὴν εἶπεν EGNWSAN GAR hOTI PROS AUTOUS THN
PARABOLHN EIPEN ‘for they knew that he spoke the parable about them’ Mark
12:12;... ἐάν τις πρός τινα ἔχῃ μομφήν  EAN TIS PROS TINA ECHi MOMFHN ‘if
anyone has a complaint about anyone’ Colossians 3:13.
>
> So then, understanding that background, my question is this:
> Most lexicons I've looked at say PROS and EIS can be translated as
> "against", and in several places in the Bible it is translated that
> way in the NIV. What I want to know is do these words have that sense
> in the word itself or does context and stylistic consideration
> determine if it is rendered that way?

I would say that the basic meaning of PROS with accusative is "direction
towards" and that a hostile or positive sense is not really part of the
meaning of the preposition itself, but comes in through a hostile or
positive verb being used or implied in the context. So, with accusations, 
complaints etc. the implied meaning is "confrontation".

> Also in Matt 5:28, is "against" a possible rendering of PROS? One
> resource I looked at said that "against" is one meaning for
> πρὸς; in the accusative, and the PROS (πρὸς) word in Matt
> 5:28 is in the accusative according to a different resource (sorry I
> don't remember where I found what). According to http://
> www.searchgodsword.org/lex/grk/view.cgi?number=4314 it would seem
> that the number 1 definition listed for πρὸς; is "to the
> advantage of" but I'm not sure if that works in the accusative. So in
> putting all of this together, I'm wondering if Matt 5:28 could
> possibly be translated as "Everyone who looks (against a woman/ upto
> a woman in such a way as to be against her/ at a woman---in such a
> way as to take advantage of her), has already committed adultery with
> her in their heart."

No, that is not possible, because PROS is not connected to the woman. The
text is:
πᾶς ὁ βλέπων γυναῖκα πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι αὐτὴν ἤδη ἐμοίχευσεν αὐτὴν ἐν τῇ
καρδίᾳ αὐτοῦ

PAS hO BLEPWN GUNAIKA PROS TO EPIQUMHSAI AUTHN HDH EMOICEUSEN AUTHN EN THi
KARDIAi AUTOU

Here PROS governs a clause, not a noun, and therefore the sense is "for the
purpose of" or "with the intention of" or "with a view towards" doing what
the clause says. The verb (EPIQUMHSAI) refers to a strong desire (lust) to
possess something. So, anyone who looks at a woman with the intention of
strongly desiring/lusting her, he has already "adulterated" her in his
heart. Note that this Greek verb for "lusting" is the word used to translate
the Hebrew word in Exo 20:17: "You shall not covet your neighbor's wife".
The original readers would probably have identified the Greek word as used
in this context with this particular commandment. (And I assume Jesus would
have used the corresponding Hebrew word.) Paul only needs to mention this
word "Do not lust/covet" (Rom 7:7), and people knew what he was referring
to: Do not lust/covet your neighbour's wife (or other things belonging to
him).

What Jesus is pointing out is that actions are conceived in the mind
(Hebrew:heart), and they should be stopped there. James 1:15 is saying
something similar.

Iver Larsen




More information about the B-Greek mailing list